ATI RN
Genitourinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is aware of the high incidence and
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Option B is correct because providing education on the importance of adequate hydration and strategies to prevent fluid volume deficit is crucial for older adults. This includes encouraging regular water intake, monitoring urine color, and recognizing signs of dehydration. Option A is incorrect as applying an ice pack to the perineum does not address fluid volume deficit. The other choices are not provided, but they would likely be incorrect as they do not focus on addressing fluid volume deficit in older adults.
Question 2 of 5
When performing a genitourinary assessment, the nurse notices that the urethral meatus is ventrally positioned. This finding is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Called hypospadias. Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the urethral meatus is located on the ventral side of the penis. This condition is typically present from birth and is not a result of phimosis, which is the narrowing of the foreskin. It is also not likely due to a stricture, which is a narrowing of the urethra. Furthermore, hypospadias is a congenital condition and is not associated with aging, making option D incorrect.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is providing patient teaching about an erectile dysfunction drug. One of the drug’s potential side effects is prolonged, painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation, which is known as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Priapism. Priapism is a rare but serious side effect of some erectile dysfunction drugs, causing prolonged and painful erection without sexual stimulation. Orchitis (A) is inflammation of the testicles, not related to this side effect. Stricture (B) is a narrowing of a tube or passageway, not relevant to this scenario. Phimosis (C) is a condition in which the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted, unrelated to the side effect described. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it aligns with the description of prolonged, painful erection without sexual stimulation.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following antibiotics requires close monitoring and dosing * adjustment in a patient with liver disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erythromycin. Erythromycin is primarily metabolized in the liver, making it important to monitor and adjust dosage in patients with liver disease to prevent potential toxicity. Gentamycin and Penicillin G are primarily excreted by the kidneys, so liver function has less impact on their metabolism. Vancomycin is primarily excreted by the kidneys as well, so liver disease would not significantly affect its dosing requirements.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following cephalosporins has activity against gram negative * anaerobic bacteria like Bacteroides fragilis, and the only cephalorins that cross the blood brain barrier and enter the brain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Ceftriaxone belongs to the third-generation cephalosporins known for broad-spectrum activity against gram-negative * anaerobic bacteria like Bacteroides fragilis. 2. It is the only cephalosporin among the choices that can effectively penetrate the blood-brain barrier, making it effective in treating central nervous system infections. 3. Cefoxitin (B) is a second-generation cephalosporin mainly active against gram-positive and some gram-negative bacteria. 4. Cephalin (C) is not a cephalosporin and does not exist. 5. Cexime (D) is a fourth-generation cephalosporin with extended spectrum, but it does not have the same ability to cross the blood-brain barrier as ceftriaxone.