ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is assisting a patient in making dietarychoices that promote healthy bowel elimination. Which menu option should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it includes fiber-rich whole wheat bread, grapes, and walnuts which promote healthy bowel elimination. Whole wheat bread and fruits provide dietary fiber that aids in digestion and prevents constipation. Walnuts are high in omega-3 fatty acids which can also help with bowel regularity. Option A (Broccoli and cheese soup with potato bread) lacks fiber and may cause constipation due to the low fiber content. Option B (Turkey and mashed potatoes with brown gravy) may be low in fiber and high in fat, which can slow down digestion. Option D (Dinner salad topped with hard-boiled eggs, cheese, and fat-free dressing) is a healthier choice but may lack sufficient fiber for promoting healthy bowel elimination compared to option C.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a postsurgical wound. When planning care, which goal will be the priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promote positive nitrogen balance. In a postsurgical patient, promoting positive nitrogen balance is crucial for wound healing and tissue repair. This goal helps prevent muscle wasting and promotes overall recovery. A: Reduce dependent nitrogen balance is incorrect as it does not address the need for positive nitrogen balance in wound healing. B: Maintain negative nitrogen balance is incorrect because negative nitrogen balance indicates a loss of protein stores, which is detrimental for healing. D: Facilitate neutral nitrogen balance is incorrect as it does not actively support the increased protein needs for wound repair.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has presented for her annual mammogram. The patient voices concerns related to exposure to radiation. What should the nurse teach the patient about a mammogram?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Mammograms use low-dose X-rays to create images of the breast tissue. Step 2: The radiation exposure in a mammogram is minimal and considered safe. Step 3: Choice A is correct as it states that mammograms do not use radiation, which is accurate. Step 4: Other choices are incorrect because B wrongly implies that annual mammograms are safe due to low radiation levels, C is incorrect as radiation effects can accumulate over time, and D is incorrect as the amount of radiation in a mammogram is much lower than an hour of sunlight.
Question 4 of 9
A woman is considering breast reduction mammoplasty. When weighing the potential risks and benefits of this surgical procedure, the nurse should confirm that the patient is aware of what potential consequence?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased nipple sensation. During breast reduction mammoplasty, nerves responsible for nipple sensation may be disrupted, leading to decreased sensation in the nipple area. This is an important consequence to consider as it can impact the patient's satisfaction and quality of life post-surgery. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Chronic breast pain is a potential risk of surgery but not a consequence directly related to nipple sensation. B: Unclear mammography results may occur due to breast tissue changes from surgery, but it is not a direct consequence of decreased nipple sensation. C: Increased risk of breast cancer is not a common consequence of breast reduction mammoplasty and is not directly related to nipple sensation.
Question 5 of 9
Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rubella. Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which includes bilateral cataracts as a characteristic feature. Rubella virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) can also cause congenital cataracts, but rubella is more commonly associated with this abnormality. Syphilis can cause other congenital abnormalities but not bilateral cataracts. HIV does not typically lead to bilateral cataracts in newborns.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse administers an antimuscarinic to a patient.Which findings indicate the patient is having therapeutic effects from this medication? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decrease in dysuria. Antimuscarinic medications target muscarinic receptors, which are involved in the contraction of smooth muscle in the bladder. Dysuria, or painful urination, is a common symptom of overactive bladder or bladder spasms, which can be relieved by antimuscarinics. Choices B, C, and D are related to other urinary symptoms such as urgency, frequency, and prostate size, respectively, which are not directly targeted by antimuscarinics. Therefore, only a decrease in dysuria indicates therapeutic effects of the medication.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with metastatic cancer has developed trigeminal neuralgia and is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for pain relief. What principle applies to the administration of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient should be monitored for bone marrow depression. Carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased production of blood cells. Monitoring blood counts is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. Choice A is incorrect as Tegretol can have serious adverse effects, including bone marrow depression. Choice C is incorrect as the main side effects of carbamazepine are related to the central nervous system, not renal dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as medications like carbamazepine should be started at a low dose and gradually titrated up to minimize side effects.
Question 8 of 9
A medical nurse is providing palliative care to a patient with a diagnosis of end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What is the primary goal of this nurses care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To improve the patients and familys quality of life. In palliative care for end-stage COPD, the primary goal is to enhance quality of life by managing symptoms, providing emotional support, and ensuring comfort. Choice B is incorrect as palliative care focuses on comfort rather than aggressive treatments. Choice C is incorrect because palliative care encompasses not only physical but also emotional, social, and spiritual support. Choice D is incorrect as the goal is to provide holistic care rather than separate plans for each discipline. Ultimately, the primary focus of palliative care in this scenario is to improve the overall quality of life for the patient and their family.
Question 9 of 9
The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurses assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). In this scenario, the oncology patient has completed treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. TLS is a potential complication post-treatment due to the rapid breakdown of cancer cells, leading to release of intracellular contents like potassium, phosphorus, and uric acid into the bloodstream. This can result in electrolyte imbalances, renal failure, and cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should assess for signs such as hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and elevated uric acid levels. Monitoring renal function and fluid status is crucial. Summary of other choices: B: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Not typically associated with post-treatment complications in oncology patients. C: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)