ATI RN
jarvis health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following is a common sign of COPD exacerbation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased shortness of breath. During a COPD exacerbation, airflow limitation worsens, leading to increased difficulty in breathing. This is a common sign due to air trapping and inflammation in the airways. Sudden weight gain (A) is not typically associated with COPD exacerbation. Decreased heart rate (C) is not a common sign and is more likely to occur in other conditions. Increased energy levels (D) are unlikely during a COPD exacerbation as the body is under stress from impaired lung function.
Question 2 of 9
What are the goals of palliative care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giving the client the best quality of life possible. Palliative care aims to improve quality of life for individuals facing serious illnesses through symptom management, emotional support, and enhancing overall well-being. It focuses on promoting comfort and relief from pain, rather than curing the illness. Choice B is also relevant as palliative care considers the holistic needs of the individual. Choices C and D are incorrect as palliative care is not restricted to end-of-life care only and involves supporting both the patient and their family throughout the illness journey.
Question 3 of 9
What is the BMI of a client weighing 216 pounds with a height of 66 inches?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, BMI indicates obesity (35). To calculate BMI, we use the formula BMI = (Weight in pounds / (Height in inches x Height in inches)) x 703. Plugging in the values (216 / (66 x 66)) x 703, we get a BMI of approximately 35. A BMI of 35 falls within the obesity category (BMI 30 or higher). Choice A is incorrect because a BMI of 35 is not within normal limits. Choice B is incorrect as a BMI of 27 would indicate overweight status, not obesity. Choice D is incorrect as the BMI calculated is higher than normal, not lower.
Question 4 of 9
What is assessed during a functional health assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a functional health assessment evaluates various health patterns such as roles, relationships, coping mechanisms, stress tolerance, and lifestyle choices, providing a holistic view of the individual's well-being. Vital signs and circulation (A) are typically included in a physical assessment, not a functional health assessment. Assessing specific organ abnormalities (C) would be part of a focused physical examination or diagnostic testing. Acute symptoms (D) are important to address but do not encompass the comprehensive evaluation of health patterns that a functional health assessment covers.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of complications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: A - Hyperkalemia Rationale: 1. In CKD, impaired kidney function leads to decreased potassium excretion, causing hyperkalemia. 2. Hyperkalemia can result in life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. 3. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in CKD management. Summary: B: Hypoglycemia - Not typically associated with CKD, more common in diabetes. C: Hyperglycemia - Common in diabetes, but not a typical complication of CKD. D: Hypercalcemia - Uncommon in CKD, more often seen in hyperparathyroidism.
Question 6 of 9
What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with severe nausea and vomiting after surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetics. This intervention helps to reduce nausea and vomiting by blocking the neurotransmitters responsible for triggering these symptoms. Administering antiemetics is the most direct and effective approach to address severe nausea and vomiting post-surgery. Choice B (Placing the client in a supine position) is incorrect because it does not directly address the underlying cause of nausea and vomiting. Choice C (Providing hydration) is important but may not alleviate the symptoms of severe nausea and vomiting. Choice D (Monitoring bowel sounds) is important for assessing gastrointestinal motility but does not directly address the immediate symptoms of nausea and vomiting.
Question 7 of 9
When using the mnemonic PQRSTU to help remember all the points of a patient's perception of his or her problem, what does the "S" signify?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Severity. In the PQRSTU mnemonic, "S" stands for Severity, which refers to the intensity or seriousness of the symptoms experienced by the patient. This is crucial in assessing the impact of the problem on the patient's health and well-being. Incorrect choices: A: Swelling - Swelling is a physical symptom and does not encompass all aspects of the patient's perception. B: Subjectivity - While the patient's subjective experience is important, it does not specifically refer to severity. D: Symptoms - While symptoms are part of the patient's perception, the "S" in PQRSTU specifically focuses on the severity of those symptoms.
Question 8 of 9
In recording the childhood illnesses of a patient, who denies having had any, which of the following notes by the nurse would be most accurate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides a thorough list of specific childhood illnesses and confirms the patient's denial of having had them. This approach ensures comprehensive documentation and accuracy. Choice A is vague and lacks specificity, potentially leading to misunderstandings. Choice B focuses on the patient's perception of their health rather than actual illnesses. Choice C mentions the patient's sister and measles, which is irrelevant to the patient's own medical history. Overall, choice D is the most accurate and relevant option for documenting the patient's childhood illnesses.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with asthma. The nurse should educate the patient about using a peak flow meter. What is the primary purpose of this device?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To monitor the amount of airway obstruction. A peak flow meter is used to measure how well the patient can exhale air from the lungs, indicating the degree of airway obstruction in conditions like asthma. By monitoring peak flow readings, the nurse can assess the severity of the patient's asthma and adjust treatment accordingly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: To measure the amount of oxygen in the blood - This is the function of a pulse oximeter, not a peak flow meter. C: To measure the frequency of inhaler use - This is not the primary purpose of a peak flow meter, which is specifically used to monitor airway obstruction. D: To track blood glucose levels - This is the function of a glucometer, not a peak flow meter used for asthma management.