ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with a history of smoking. The patient reports a persistent cough that has worsened over the past few months. The nurse would be most concerned about the possibility of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient's history of smoking, persistent cough, and worsening symptoms over months are indicative of COPD, a progressive lung disease commonly caused by smoking. Asthma (A) typically presents with intermittent symptoms, bronchitis (C) may cause cough but not necessarily worsening over time, and pulmonary embolism (D) is characterized by sudden onset symptoms and is less likely in this case. COPD is the most concerning due to the patient's smoking history and progressive symptoms.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is obtaining history for a 3-month-old infant. During the interview, the mother states,"I think she is getting her first tooth because she has started drooling a lot." The nurse's best response would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because drooling is a common sign of teething in infants. The nurse's response should validate the mother's observation to build trust and rapport. Choice B is incorrect because teething can start as early as 3 months. Choice C is incorrect as drooling is a normal developmental milestone in infants. Choice D is incorrect as infants do not consciously control saliva production.
Question 3 of 9
A female patient does not speak English well, and the nurse needs to choose an interpreter. Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A trained interpreter. Choosing a trained interpreter ensures accurate communication and confidentiality. Professional interpreters have the necessary language skills and cultural competence to facilitate effective communication between the healthcare provider and the patient. Using a family member (choices B and C) may compromise confidentiality and accuracy due to potential bias or lack of professional training. Similarly, selecting a volunteer university student (choice D) may result in misinterpretation or breach of privacy as they may not have the same level of expertise as a trained interpreter. Ultimately, the most appropriate choice is a trained interpreter to ensure clear and accurate communication while respecting the patient's privacy and dignity.
Question 4 of 9
The papule on the nose of a 52-year-old woman has rounded, pearly borders and a central red ulcer. She tells the nurse that it has been present for several months and is slowly growing larger. Which of the following conditions does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basal cell carcinoma. The clinical presentation of a papule with rounded, pearly borders, central red ulcer, slow growth, and location on the nose is highly indicative of basal cell carcinoma. Basal cell carcinoma commonly presents with these characteristics and is the most common type of skin cancer. It is locally invasive but rarely metastasizes. A: Acne is a common skin condition characterized by comedones, papules, and pustules, not typically presenting with the described features. C: Malignant melanoma usually presents as an asymmetric, irregularly bordered, multicolored lesion with rapid growth and potential for metastasis. D: Squamous cell carcinoma typically presents as a scaly, crusted lesion with potential for metastasis, not showing the described features.
Question 5 of 9
What is the most important assessment for a client with diabetes and newly diagnosed hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform a comprehensive physical exam. This is important because it helps assess the overall health status of the client, including cardiovascular risk factors that can affect both diabetes and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose (A) is important for diabetes management but not specific to newly diagnosed hypertension. Checking for protein in the urine (C) is important for assessing kidney function in diabetes, but not the most crucial assessment for newly diagnosed hypertension. Assessing for urinary retention (D) is not directly related to managing diabetes and hypertension.
Question 6 of 9
What is the priority nursing action for a client who is experiencing severe chest pain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer nitroglycerin. The priority nursing action for a client experiencing severe chest pain is to administer nitroglycerin to help dilate the blood vessels and improve blood flow to the heart, reducing chest pain. This action helps to address the immediate issue of chest pain and potential heart damage. Administering morphine (B) may be considered if chest pain persists despite nitroglycerin. Administering oxygen (C) can also be helpful but is not the initial priority. Monitoring blood pressure (D) is important but not the most urgent action in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
What is the nurse's first priority when caring for a client with severe burns?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer antibiotics. When caring for a client with severe burns, the first priority is to prevent infection, which can be life-threatening. Administering antibiotics helps reduce the risk of infection. Cleansing and dressing the wounds can come after ensuring infection control. Performing a tracheostomy is not typically the first priority unless there are airway concerns. Administering analgesics is important, but it is not the first priority in this case.
Question 8 of 9
Which serotonin antagonist can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ondansetron (Zofran). Ondansetron is a selective serotonin receptor antagonist that effectively targets the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone to relieve nausea and vomiting. It is commonly used in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. A: Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and primarily used for gastrointestinal motility disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. C: Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with sedative properties, primarily used for anxiety and itching, not specifically for nausea relief. D: Prochlorperazine is a dopamine receptor antagonist primarily used for treating psychotic disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. In summary, ondansetron is the correct choice as it targets serotonin receptors specifically for relieving nausea and vomiting, whereas the other options focus on different mechanisms of action.
Question 9 of 9
A woman has noticed that her son, who has a new babysitter, has some blisters and scabs on his face and buttocks. On examination, the nurse notices moist, thin-roofed vesicles with a thin erythematous base and suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: impetigo. The characteristics of moist, thin-roofed vesicles with a thin erythematous base are classic features of impetigo, a bacterial skin infection commonly seen in children. Impetigo is highly contagious and commonly affects the face and buttocks. The presence of blisters and scabs further supports the diagnosis of impetigo. Explanation of other choices: A: Eczema typically presents as dry, itchy patches of skin with redness and scaling. It does not usually manifest as vesicles or blisters. C: Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, presents as a painful rash with grouped vesicles on one side of the body along a nerve pathway. It is uncommon in children and usually affects older individuals. D: Diaper dermatitis is a common rash in infants due to prolonged skin exposure to urine and feces. It typically presents as redness, irritation, and possibly skin breakdown in the diaper