Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient's history of smoking, persistent cough, and worsening symptoms over months are indicative of COPD, a progressive lung disease commonly caused by smoking. Asthma (A) typically presents with intermittent symptoms, bronchitis (C) may cause cough but not necessarily worsening over time, and pulmonary embolism (D) is characterized by sudden onset symptoms and is less likely in this case. COPD is the most concerning due to the patient's smoking history and progressive symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, administer insulin, because hyperglycemia indicates high blood sugar levels which can be effectively lowered by administering insulin. Insulin helps to move glucose from the blood into cells for energy production. Administering fluids (B) can be helpful for dehydration, but it does not directly address the high blood sugar levels. Encouraging activity (C) may help lower blood sugar levels over time, but in the immediate situation, administering insulin is more effective. Encouraging deep breathing (D) does not directly address hyperglycemia and would not be the appropriate first step in managing this condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: ondansetron (Zofran). Ondansetron is a selective serotonin receptor antagonist that effectively targets the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone to relieve nausea and vomiting. It is commonly used in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. A: Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and primarily used for gastrointestinal motility disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. C: Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with sedative properties, primarily used for anxiety and itching, not specifically for nausea relief. D: Prochlorperazine is a dopamine receptor antagonist primarily used for treating psychotic disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. In summary, ondansetron is the correct choice as it targets serotonin receptors specifically for relieving nausea and vomiting, whereas the other options focus on different mechanisms of action.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial as warfarin increases the risk of bleeding events. Signs of bleeding may include easy bruising, nosebleeds, blood in urine or stool. Hypertension (B), hyperglycemia (C), and hypokalemia (D) are not direct effects of warfarin. Monitoring for these conditions may be important for other medications or conditions, but they are not the primary concern when a patient is prescribed warfarin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Older adults may have a longer story to tell due to their wealth of life experiences. This can include medical history, family background, and personal stories that may impact their health. It is important for the nurse to gather all relevant information to provide appropriate care. Choice B is incorrect because not all older adults are lonely, and the reason for a longer interview is not solely based on the need for social interaction. Choice C is incorrect because while some older adults may experience cognitive decline, it is not a blanket statement that all older adults lose mental abilities. Choice D is incorrect because hearing loss is not a universal issue among older adults, and assuming so can lead to ageist stereotypes.