ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with a history of stroke. The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients with a history of stroke are at increased risk for DVT due to immobility and potential damage to blood vessels. The nurse should monitor for signs such as swelling, pain, and redness in the extremities. Pneumonia (A) can occur post-stroke but is not the most common complication. Hypoglycemia (C) is more relevant for diabetic patients. Hypertension (D) is a common comorbidity in stroke patients but monitoring for DVT is crucial due to its immediate life-threatening implications.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with a history of hypertension about lifestyle changes. Which of the following lifestyle modifications should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because reducing alcohol consumption and limiting sodium intake are both crucial lifestyle modifications for managing hypertension. Alcohol can raise blood pressure, while excess sodium can contribute to hypertension. By prioritizing these changes, the patient can better control their blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because increasing sodium intake can worsen hypertension due to fluid retention. Choice C is incorrect as decreasing physical activity can lead to weight gain and worsen hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as processed foods are often high in sodium and unhealthy fats, which can negatively impact blood pressure.
Question 3 of 9
What is the most important assessment for a client with diabetes and newly diagnosed hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform a comprehensive physical exam. This is important because it helps assess the overall health status of the client, including cardiovascular risk factors that can affect both diabetes and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose (A) is important for diabetes management but not specific to newly diagnosed hypertension. Checking for protein in the urine (C) is important for assessing kidney function in diabetes, but not the most crucial assessment for newly diagnosed hypertension. Assessing for urinary retention (D) is not directly related to managing diabetes and hypertension.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following about a newborn infant is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the frontal sinuses are indeed fairly well developed at birth. This is true as the frontal sinuses start developing around the age of 7-8 years but are present in a rudimentary form at birth. This is because the frontal bone grows rapidly in the first few years of life, allowing for the development of the frontal sinuses. Choice A is incorrect because the sphenoid sinuses are not at full size at birth; they continue to develop throughout childhood. Choice B is incorrect as the maxillary sinuses reach full size around the teenage years, not after puberty. Choice D is incorrect as the frontal sinuses are also present at birth, along with the maxillary and ethmoid sinuses.
Question 5 of 9
A 31-year-old patient tells the nurse that he is experiencing a progressive loss of hearing. He says that it does seem to help when people speak more loudly or if he turns up the volume. The most likely cause of his hearing loss is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: otosclerosis. Otosclerosis is a condition where abnormal bone growth in the middle ear causes hearing loss. In this case, the patient's symptoms of progressive hearing loss improving with louder sounds suggest conductive hearing loss, which is commonly seen in otosclerosis. Other choices are incorrect because presbycusis is age-related hearing loss, trauma to the bones would typically result in sudden hearing loss, and frequent ear infections are more likely to cause temporary hearing loss rather than progressive loss.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following factors should a nurse consider when assessing a patient's risk for developing pressure ulcers?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Patient's age and mobility. Age and mobility are key factors in pressure ulcer development as elderly and immobile patients are at higher risk due to decreased circulation and pressure on skin. Family medical history (B) is not directly linked to pressure ulcers. Frequency of hospital visits (C) is not a determining factor, and patient's education level (D) does not directly impact pressure ulcer risk. In summary, assessing age and mobility helps identify high-risk patients for developing pressure ulcers.
Question 7 of 9
What is the primary goal for a client with newly diagnosed diabetes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal for a client with newly diagnosed diabetes is to monitor their blood glucose levels (Answer B). This is essential to understand how their body responds to different foods, activities, and medications. Monitoring blood glucose levels helps in determining the effectiveness of the treatment plan and making necessary adjustments. Teaching the client how to manage their blood glucose levels (Answer A) is important, but monitoring comes first. Monitoring urine output (Answer C) is not as relevant for diabetes management. Administering insulin (Answer D) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary goal initially.
Question 8 of 9
The papule on the nose of a 52-year-old woman has rounded, pearly borders and a central red ulcer. She tells the nurse that it has been present for several months and is slowly growing larger. Which of the following conditions does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basal cell carcinoma. The clinical presentation of a papule with rounded, pearly borders, central red ulcer, slow growth, and location on the nose is highly indicative of basal cell carcinoma. Basal cell carcinoma commonly presents with these characteristics and is the most common type of skin cancer. It is locally invasive but rarely metastasizes. A: Acne is a common skin condition characterized by comedones, papules, and pustules, not typically presenting with the described features. C: Malignant melanoma usually presents as an asymmetric, irregularly bordered, multicolored lesion with rapid growth and potential for metastasis. D: Squamous cell carcinoma typically presents as a scaly, crusted lesion with potential for metastasis, not showing the described features.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about self-management. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because using the inhaler every time the patient feels short of breath, even without a flare-up, is not the recommended practice for managing COPD. Inhalers should be used as prescribed by the healthcare provider or only during exacerbations. Here's the rationale: 1. Using the inhaler excessively can lead to overuse of medication and potential side effects. 2. It is important for patients to differentiate between regular management and acute exacerbations. 3. Monitoring oxygen levels (choice D) is essential for COPD management. 4. Quitting smoking (choice A) and deep breathing exercises (choice B) are positive self-management strategies for COPD.