ATI RN
hesi health assessment test bank 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with a history of stroke. The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients with a history of stroke are at increased risk for DVT due to immobility and potential damage to blood vessels. The nurse should monitor for signs such as swelling, pain, and redness in the extremities. Pneumonia (A) can occur post-stroke but is not the most common complication. Hypoglycemia (C) is more relevant for diabetic patients. Hypertension (D) is a common comorbidity in stroke patients but monitoring for DVT is crucial due to its immediate life-threatening implications.
Question 2 of 9
What should the nurse do when a client develops severe shortness of breath after surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. This is the priority intervention to address severe shortness of breath, ensuring the client receives adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen helps improve oxygen saturation levels and supports respiratory function. Encouraging deep breathing (B) may exacerbate the client's distress. Elevating the head of the bed (C) can help improve breathing but does not address the immediate need for oxygen. Administering antibiotics (D) is not indicated for shortness of breath unless there is an underlying infection causing it.
Question 3 of 9
A woman has come to the clinic to seek help for a substance use problem. She admits to using cocaine just before coming to the clinic. Which of the following describes what the nurse may find when examining this woman?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cocaine is a stimulant drug that typically leads to symptoms such as dilated pupils, pacing, and psychomotor agitation. Dilated pupils occur due to increased catecholamines. Pacing and psychomotor agitation are common behaviors associated with cocaine use. Unsteady gait and aggressiveness (Option B) are more characteristic of alcohol intoxication. Pupil constriction, lethargy, apathy, and dysphoria (Option C) are typical symptoms of opioid use. Constricted pupils, euphoria, and decreased temperature (Option D) are more indicative of opioid use as well.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with a history of diabetes and hypertension. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chronic kidney disease (CKD). Patients with diabetes and hypertension are at increased risk for developing CKD due to the damaging effects of high blood sugar and elevated blood pressure on the kidneys. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of kidney dysfunction such as proteinuria, elevated creatinine levels, and decreased glomerular filtration rate. B: Chronic pain is not directly related to the patient's history of diabetes and hypertension. While the patient may experience pain as a result of complications from these conditions, it is not the primary complication to monitor for in this case. C: Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is not a common complication associated with diabetes and hypertension. These conditions typically lead to high blood pressure rather than low blood pressure. D: Sepsis is a serious infection that can occur in any patient, but it is not a direct complication specifically related to diabetes and hypertension. Monitoring for sepsis would be important in a broader context but is not
Question 5 of 9
A patient is brought by ambulance to the emergency department with multiple injuries received in an automobile accident. He is alert and cooperative, but his injuries are quite severe. How should the nurse proceed with the data collection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient with severe injuries is brought to the emergency department, the nurse should prioritize performing a physical examination and initiating lifesaving measures while asking history questions simultaneously. This approach allows for immediate assessment and intervention to address any life-threatening conditions. Gathering history information while performing the examination ensures that critical details are not missed and helps in making timely decisions. Choosing option A could delay lifesaving interventions, while option C is not a priority during the initial assessment of a critically injured patient. Option D is incorrect as it prioritizes lifesaving measures over obtaining important history information during the initial assessment.
Question 6 of 9
Which assessment finding indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased fibrinogen. Heparin therapy works by inhibiting clot formation by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, which leads to decreased levels of fibrinogen. Therefore, an increase in fibrinogen levels would indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. Incorrect choices: A: increased platelet count - Heparin therapy does not typically affect platelet count, so an increase in platelet count would not indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. C: decreased fibrin split products - Decreased fibrin split products may not necessarily indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy, as other factors can also influence their levels. D: decreased bleeding - While decreased bleeding can be a positive outcome of Heparin therapy, it is not a direct assessment finding that indicates a positive response to the therapy.
Question 7 of 9
Which medication should be used to treat anaphylaxis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epinephrine. It is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it rapidly reverses severe allergic reactions by constricting blood vessels, relaxing airway muscles, and increasing heart rate. Diphenhydramine (B) and steroids (C) are used as adjunct therapies but do not provide immediate relief like epinephrine. Albuterol (D) is used for bronchospasm in asthma, not for anaphylaxis. In summary, epinephrine is the most effective and life-saving medication for treating anaphylaxis.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administering oxygen as prescribed. Oxygen therapy is a critical intervention in pneumonia to improve oxygenation and prevent hypoxia. Priority is given to interventions that address the immediate physiological needs of the patient. Encouraging fluid intake (A) is important but not as urgent as oxygen therapy. Encouraging ambulation (C) can be beneficial for overall health but may not be suitable for a patient with pneumonia. Providing pain medication (D) is important for comfort but is not the priority in this case.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with hypertension about dietary modifications. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates proper understanding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: Limiting alcohol intake reduces blood pressure. Reducing sodium intake also helps manage hypertension. Alcohol can increase blood pressure, while sodium can lead to fluid retention. The patient's statement shows understanding of the importance of both factors in managing hypertension. Other Choices: A: Increasing sodium intake worsens fluid retention and hypertension. C: Processed foods are often high in sodium and unhealthy fats, worsening hypertension. D: Reducing exercise can lead to weight gain and increased blood pressure, contrary to managing hypertension.