ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with a history of diabetes and hypertension. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chronic kidney disease (CKD). Patients with diabetes and hypertension are at increased risk for developing CKD due to the damaging effects of high blood sugar and elevated blood pressure on the kidneys. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of kidney dysfunction such as proteinuria, elevated creatinine levels, and decreased glomerular filtration rate. B: Chronic pain is not directly related to the patient's history of diabetes and hypertension. While the patient may experience pain as a result of complications from these conditions, it is not the primary complication to monitor for in this case. C: Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is not a common complication associated with diabetes and hypertension. These conditions typically lead to high blood pressure rather than low blood pressure. D: Sepsis is a serious infection that can occur in any patient, but it is not a direct complication specifically related to diabetes and hypertension. Monitoring for sepsis would be important in a broader context but is not
Question 2 of 9
What is the nurse's priority when caring for a client experiencing a severe allergic reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer epinephrine. The priority in a severe allergic reaction is to quickly address the life-threatening symptoms like anaphylaxis. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment as it helps reverse the effects of the allergic reaction by opening airways and increasing blood pressure. Administering antihistamines (choices B and D) can help relieve itching and hives but are not as effective in treating severe symptoms. Monitoring respiratory status (choice C) is important but administering epinephrine takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition.
Question 3 of 9
A 32-year-old woman is at the clinic for a checkup, and she states,"I have little white bumps in my mouth." During the assessment, the nurse notes that she has a 5-cm white, nontender papule under her tongue and one on the mucosa of her right cheek. Which of the following would the nurse tell the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Fordyce's granules are small, yellow-white or flesh-colored spots that are sebaceous glands and commonly found on the oral mucosa. They are benign and do not require treatment. In this case, the patient's description matches the characteristics of Fordyce's granules. Option A is incorrect because strep throat typically presents with other symptoms like sore throat and fever, not white bumps in the mouth. Option B is incorrect as there is no indication of a serious lesion based on the description given. Option C is incorrect as leukoplakia is a condition associated with chronic irritation, not Fordyce's granules.
Question 4 of 9
A 31-year-old patient tells the nurse that he is experiencing a progressive loss of hearing. He says that it does seem to help when people speak more loudly or if he turns up the volume. The most likely cause of his hearing loss is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: otosclerosis. Otosclerosis is a condition where abnormal bone growth in the middle ear causes hearing loss. In this case, the patient's symptoms of progressive hearing loss improving with louder sounds suggest conductive hearing loss, which is commonly seen in otosclerosis. Other choices are incorrect because presbycusis is age-related hearing loss, trauma to the bones would typically result in sudden hearing loss, and frequent ear infections are more likely to cause temporary hearing loss rather than progressive loss.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: 1. Using the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles is safe because it ensures even heating without creating hot spots that could burn the baby's mouth. 2. This method helps to preserve the nutrients in the breast milk or formula. 3. It is important to warm the bottle to body temperature to mimic the natural feel of breast milk for the baby's comfort. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Feeding the baby partially used bottles after 24 hours can increase the risk of bacterial contamination and foodborne illness. C: Mixing two parts water and one part concentrate for formula concentrate is incorrect as it may dilute the formula, leading to inadequate nutrition for the baby. D: Adding new formula to partially used bottles can alter the balance of nutrients and increase the risk of contamination, affecting the baby's health.
Question 6 of 9
Which medication should be used to treat anaphylaxis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epinephrine. It is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it rapidly reverses severe allergic reactions by constricting blood vessels, relaxing airway muscles, and increasing heart rate. Diphenhydramine (B) and steroids (C) are used as adjunct therapies but do not provide immediate relief like epinephrine. Albuterol (D) is used for bronchospasm in asthma, not for anaphylaxis. In summary, epinephrine is the most effective and life-saving medication for treating anaphylaxis.
Question 7 of 9
Which value should a nurse monitor closely when a client is on TPN?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Glucose. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is a form of nutrition delivered directly into the bloodstream, providing all essential nutrients including glucose. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Calcium (A), Magnesium (B), and Cholesterol (D) are not typically monitored closely when a client is on TPN, as they are not directly impacted by TPN administration. Calcium and Magnesium levels are usually monitored for other conditions, and Cholesterol levels are not typically affected by TPN administration.
Question 8 of 9
What should the nurse do when a client is experiencing hyperglycemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, administer insulin, because hyperglycemia indicates high blood sugar levels which can be effectively lowered by administering insulin. Insulin helps to move glucose from the blood into cells for energy production. Administering fluids (B) can be helpful for dehydration, but it does not directly address the high blood sugar levels. Encouraging activity (C) may help lower blood sugar levels over time, but in the immediate situation, administering insulin is more effective. Encouraging deep breathing (D) does not directly address hyperglycemia and would not be the appropriate first step in managing this condition.
Question 9 of 9
Which nursing measure is most appropriate to meet the expected outcome of positive body image in a client with Kawasaki disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: explaining progression of the disease to the client and family. This measure helps the client and family understand the disease, leading to better coping and acceptance, thus promoting a positive body image. Administering immune globulin (A) is not directly related to body image. Assessing extremities (B) and heart sounds (D) are important for monitoring the disease but do not directly impact body image.