ATI RN
NCLEX Pharmacology Cardiovascular Drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a patient who was recently prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which side effects could the nurse expect to observe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Antipsychotic medications commonly cause anticholinergic side effects such as constipation due to decreased GI motility. Step 2: Antipsychotics can also lead to decreased sweating, causing the patient to be more sensitive to heat. Step 3: These side effects (constipation, decreased sweating, and increased sensitivity to heat) are commonly seen with antipsychotic medications. Summary: Choice B: Increased moisture around the eyes, vomiting, and frontal headache are not typical side effects of antipsychotic medications. Choice C: Slurred speech, hand tremors, and severe occipital headache are more indicative of other medication classes, such as sedatives or migraine medications. Choice D: Sleeplessness, irritability, and muscle weakness are not commonly associated with antipsychotic medications.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has been taking the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) sertraline (Zoloft) for about 6 months. At a recent visit, she tells the nurse that she has been interested in herbal therapies and wants to start taking St. John’s wort. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D: “Taking St. John’s wort with Zoloft may cause severe interactions and is not recommended.” Rationale: 1. St. John's wort is known to affect serotonin levels, similar to SSRIs like Zoloft. 2. Combining St. John's wort with SSRIs can lead to serotonin syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition. 3. The nurse should advise against combining these medications due to the risk of adverse interactions. 4. This response prioritizes patient safety and provides clear guidance on the potential harm of the combination. Summary: A: Incorrect. This response is too casual and does not address the potential interactions between St. John's wort and Zoloft. B: Incorrect. Encouraging the patient to stop Zoloft abruptly is not safe and overlooks the risk of interactions. C: Incorrect. This response is vague and does not emphasize the seriousness of potential interactions.
Question 3 of 5
When administering digoxin immune Fab (Digibind) to a patient with severe digoxin toxicity, the nurse knows that each vial can bind with how much digoxin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 0.5 mg. Digoxin immune Fab binds to digoxin in a 1:1 ratio, meaning each vial can bind with 0.5 mg of digoxin. This is crucial in the treatment of severe digoxin toxicity as it helps to neutralize the toxic effects of digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the 1:1 binding ratio between digoxin immune Fab and digoxin, which is essential in determining the appropriate dose needed for effective treatment.
Question 4 of 5
During a routine checkup, a patient states that she is unable to take the prescribed antihistamine because of one of its most common adverse effects. The nurse suspects that which adverse effect has been bothering this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drowsiness. Antihistamines are known to cause drowsiness as a common adverse effect due to their sedative properties. This is why the patient may be unable to take the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation and abdominal cramps are not common adverse effects of antihistamines, and decreased libido is not typically associated with this type of medication.
Question 5 of 5
Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Rectal administration bypasses the liver initially, reducing first-pass metabolism. 2. Oral administration (Option A) passes through the liver first, increasing metabolism. 3. Transdermal administration (Option B) bypasses the liver but is not as effective in minimizing liver metabolism as rectal. 4. Intraduodenal administration (Option D) directly enters the small intestine, interacting with the liver. Therefore, rectal administration is the appropriate route to minimize liver metabolism.