ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient who presented to the ED with priapism. The student nurse is aware that this condition is classified as a urologic emergency because of the potential for what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Permanent vascular damage. Priapism is a prolonged erection that can lead to ischemia and damage to the penile tissue due to impaired blood flow, potentially resulting in permanent vascular damage. Urinary tract infection (A) is unrelated to priapism. Chronic pain (B) may occur but is not the primary concern. Future erectile dysfunction (D) can result from priapism but is not as immediate or severe as permanent vascular damage. Therefore, C is the most critical consequence to address in priapism.
Question 2 of 9
Which data found on a patient’s health history would place her at risk for an ectopic pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent pelvic infections. Pelvic infections can lead to scarring and blockage of the fallopian tubes, increasing the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Ovarian cysts and oral contraceptives are not directly linked to ectopic pregnancies. Heavy menstrual flow does not inherently increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse and a colleague are performing the Epley maneuver with a patient who has a diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. The nurses should begin this maneuver by performing what action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assisting the patient into a sitting position. The Epley maneuver is used to treat benign paroxysmal positional vertigo by repositioning displaced calcium carbonate crystals in the inner ear. This maneuver involves a series of specific head movements. Starting with the patient in a sitting position allows for proper orientation and positioning for subsequent movements to be effective. Placing the patient in a prone position (A) would not facilitate the correct positioning for the maneuver. Instilling warm saline into the ear (C) is not part of the Epley maneuver. Assessing baseline hearing (D) is unrelated to performing the Epley maneuver.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is planning the postoperative care of a patient who is scheduled for radical prostatectomy. What intraoperative position will place the patient at particular risk for the development of deep vein thrombosis postoperatively?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lithotomy position. In lithotomy position, the patient's legs are elevated and positioned higher than the heart, which can lead to venous stasis and increase the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This position compresses the femoral veins, hindering blood flow and predisposing the patient to DVT formation. Summary: A: Fowlers position - Not typically associated with increased DVT risk. B: Prone position - Not typically associated with increased DVT risk. C: Supine position - Generally considered a safe position regarding DVT risk.
Question 5 of 9
A patient requests the nurse’s help to the bedside commode and becomes frustrated when unable to void in front of the nurse. How should the nurse interpret the patient’s inability to void?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The patient can be anxious, making it difficult for abdominal and perineal muscles to relax enough to void. Rationale: Anxiety can lead to tension in the abdominal and perineal muscles, inhibiting the ability to relax and urinate. The sympathetic nervous system response to anxiety can cause urinary retention. So, the patient's frustration in voiding in front of the nurse may be due to anxiety hindering muscle relaxation. Summary of other choices: B: The patient not recognizing physiological signals is less likely as the patient requested assistance to void, indicating awareness of the need to urinate. C: The patient being lonely and seeking attention is not relevant to the inability to void in front of the nurse. D: Inadequate fluid intake may contribute to decreased urine output but is not directly related to the inability to void in front of the nurse.
Question 6 of 9
A 42-year-old man has come to the clinic for an annual physical. The nurse notes in the patients history that his father was treated for breast cancer. What should the nurse provide to the patient before he leaves the clinic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A referral for a mammogram. Given the family history of breast cancer in the patient's father, the nurse should recommend a mammogram as a preventive measure due to increased risk. Mammograms are effective in detecting breast cancer early, especially in individuals with a family history. This can help in early diagnosis and timely intervention if needed. B: Instructions about breast self-examination (BSE) can be helpful, but in this case, a mammogram is a more definitive screening tool for high-risk individuals. C: A referral to a surgeon is not necessary at this point as the patient does not exhibit any symptoms of breast cancer. D: Referral to a support group may be beneficial for emotional support, but the priority should be on proactive screening measures like a mammogram.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has returned to the floor from the PACU after undergoing a suprapubic prostatectomy. The nurse notes significant urine leakage around the suprapubic tube. What is the nurses most appropriate action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inform the urologist of this finding. In this scenario, significant urine leakage around the suprapubic tube indicates a potential issue with the tube placement or functioning. It is crucial to involve the urologist, who is the specialist managing the patient's urological interventions, to assess and address the cause of the leakage promptly. This action ensures timely and appropriate intervention to prevent complications such as infection or further damage. Choice A is incorrect because simply cleansing the skin does not address the underlying issue of urine leakage. Choice C is incorrect and potentially harmful as removing the suprapubic tube without professional assessment can lead to serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as administering antispasmodic drugs may not be the appropriate action without further evaluation by the urologist.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is planning preoperative teaching for a patient with hearing loss due to otosclerosis. The patient is scheduled for a stapedectomy with insertion of a prosthesis. What information is most crucial to include in the patients preoperative teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient is likely to experience resolution of conductive hearing loss after the procedure. This information is crucial to include in the preoperative teaching because it directly addresses the patient's expected outcome, providing reassurance and setting appropriate expectations. Stapedectomy with prosthesis insertion is a well-established treatment for otosclerosis-related conductive hearing loss. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they either provide misleading information (A, D) or are not directly relevant to the procedure or the patient's immediate postoperative experience (C). It is important to focus on accurate and relevant information to prepare the patient effectively for the upcoming surgery and its expected outcomes.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse on the medicalsurgical unit is reviewing discharge instructions with a patient who has a history of glaucoma. The nurse should anticipate the use of what medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholinergics. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure due to impaired drainage of aqueous humor. Cholinergics help to constrict the pupil and improve the outflow of aqueous humor, thus reducing intraocular pressure. This medication class is commonly used to manage glaucoma. A: Potassium-sparing diuretics are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma. They are mainly used to manage conditions like hypertension and heart failure. C: Antibiotics are not indicated for the routine management of glaucoma. They are used to treat infections. D: Loop diuretics are not commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma. They are primarily used to manage conditions like edema and hypertension.