A nurse is assessing a patient who has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings would be most concerning?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath and chest pain. This is most concerning because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism, a serious complication of DVT where a blood clot travels to the lungs. Shortness of breath and chest pain are signs of compromised respiratory and cardiac function. A: Pain and swelling in the leg are common symptoms of DVT but not as concerning as symptoms of a pulmonary embolism. B: Redness and warmth around the affected area are typical signs of inflammation associated with DVT but do not indicate a life-threatening complication like a pulmonary embolism. D: Pale skin and decreased pulse in the affected leg could be signs of compromised circulation due to DVT, but they are not as immediately life-threatening as symptoms of a pulmonary embolism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Collecting a follow-up database ensures up-to-date information. 2. It allows for monitoring of medication effectiveness and any new symptoms. 3. Checking the blood pressure is essential but needs current context. 4. Asking the patient to read her record may not provide all necessary updates. 5. The complete health history is crucial but obtaining it first may delay urgent blood pressure check.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it indicates a potential concern about the girl's mental health. This behavior may suggest a difficulty in socializing with peers of her own age, which could be a sign of emotional distress or developmental issues. This is concerning in the context of her parents' bitter divorce. A: Clinging to her mother is a common behavior for a child going through a stressful situation, so it may not necessarily indicate a mental health issue. B: Appearing angry and avoiding eye contact could also be a normal reaction to stress or discomfort. C: Riding a tricycle is a typical activity for a 5-year-old and may not directly relate to mental health concerns.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Acyclovir is a nucleoside analog antiviral drug that is specifically effective against herpes simplex virus (HSV) types 1 and 2, as well as varicella-zoster virus (VZV). The drug works by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis. HSV and VZV are both members of the herpes virus family, and acyclovir is most commonly prescribed for infections caused by these viruses. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A (HIV) is incorrect because acyclovir is not effective against HIV. Choice C (CMV) is incorrect because acyclovir is less effective against cytomegalovirus (CMV) compared to HSV and VZV. Choice D (influenza A viruses) is incorrect because acyclovir is not indicated for the treatment of influenza viruses.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique to determine the presence of crepitus during a physical examination is palpation. Crepitus is a crackling or grating sensation that is felt when there is air trapped in the subcutaneous tissue. Palpation involves using the hands to feel for abnormalities such as crepitus. Percussion involves tapping on the body to produce sounds that can help assess underlying structures, not to determine the presence of crepitus. Auscultation is listening to sounds within the body using a stethoscope, which is not relevant for detecting crepitus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because tolerance is a physiological phenomenon where the body adapts to a drug, requiring higher doses for the same effect. This is a common occurrence with opioids in chronic pain management. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to drug-seeking behavior, not tolerance. Choice C is incorrect because addiction and physical dependence are different concepts. Choice D is incorrect as it relates to a specific scenario of substance abuse alongside chronic pain, not the mechanism behind the need for increased opioid doses in chronic pain management.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for signs of infection. Within the first 48 hours post-op, fever is often indicative of an infection. Monitoring for signs such as increased pain, redness, swelling, warmth at the surgical site, elevated white blood cell count, and changes in vital signs helps in early detection and prompt treatment of infections. Administering antipyretics (choice A) may help reduce fever but does not address the underlying cause. Administering fluids (choice C) is important for hydration but does not directly address the fever's cause. Performing an abdominal assessment (choice D) is not specific to addressing fever in a post-op client.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because avoiding environmental allergens and cold air can help prevent asthma attacks. This shows the patient understands the importance of managing triggers. Choice B is incorrect because over-the-counter medications may not be sufficient for asthma management. Choice C is incorrect because smoking can worsen asthma symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because using the inhaler only when feeling short of breath is not a proactive approach to managing asthma triggers.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: variable decelerations. Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate that vary in depth, duration, and timing, which can indicate cord compression. The variability in these decelerations suggests that the umbilical cord is being compressed intermittently. Early decelerations (B) are usually caused by head compression during contractions and mirror the contractions, not indicating cord compression. Bradycardia (C) is a slow heart rate, which can be caused by various factors but is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (D) is a fast heart rate, which can also be caused by various factors but is not typically associated with cord compression.