ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately following birth. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, a heart rate of 160/min. A heart rate of 160/min in a newborn exceeds the normal range and could indicate potential issues that need further evaluation by the provider. Acrocyanosis (choice A) is a common finding in newborns and is not concerning. Vernix caseosa (choice B) is a white, cheesy substance found on newborn skin and is a normal finding. While a respiratory rate of 50/min (choice C) is slightly elevated, it is not as concerning as a high heart rate in a newborn.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is preparing to administer an enema to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to the left Sims' position when administering an enema. This position helps facilitate the flow of the enema solution into the rectum. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (Choice A) is not ideal for administering an enema. Inserting the enema tubing 2.5 cm (1 in) into the rectum (Choice C) is incorrect as it should be inserted 7.5-10 cm (3-4 in) for an adult. Lubricating the tip of the enema tubing with petroleum jelly (Choice D) is a correct step to ease insertion but is not the most critical action among the choices provided.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be decreased?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, albumin levels are typically decreased due to impaired liver function. Bilirubin levels are often increased in cirrhosis due to the liver's inability to process bilirubin efficiently. Ammonia levels may be elevated in cirrhosis due to impaired ammonia metabolism by the liver. Prothrombin time is usually prolonged in cirrhosis because the liver's ability to synthesize clotting factors is impaired.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse in a mental health unit is planning room assignments for four clients. Which of the following clients should be closest to the nurse's station?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A client with bipolar disorder and impaired social interactions should be placed closest to the nurse's station for closer monitoring. Clients with bipolar disorder may experience mood swings, including manic episodes that can lead to impulsive behaviors or aggression. Placing such a client near the nurse's station allows for quick intervention and monitoring of their social interactions, especially if they are impaired. The other options, such as anxiety disorder, somatic symptom disorder, and depressive disorder, do not inherently require immediate proximity to the nurse's station based on the information provided.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is in the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship. Which statement should the nurse make during this phase?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During the orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship, it is crucial to establish roles. This helps both the client and the nurse understand their responsibilities, boundaries, and expectations within the therapeutic process. Choice A is more focused on the working phase where strategies and interventions are discussed. Choice C is more suitable for the working phase where specific techniques are usually introduced. Choice D is also more relevant to the working phase as it involves discussing practical resources for implementation in daily life.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium 3.5 mEq/L. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia as an adverse effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with potential adverse effects of digoxin. Sodium levels are not typically affected by digoxin, calcium levels are not a primary concern with digoxin therapy, and magnesium levels are not the most important to monitor for digoxin adverse effects.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy, chest pain is a critical finding that should be reported immediately. Chest pain can indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism, which require prompt intervention. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not typical signs of immediate concern following an arterial thrombectomy. Incisional pain is expected postoperatively and may not warrant immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a bronchoscopy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An absent gag reflex is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent aspiration. This can lead to the aspiration of oral or gastric contents into the lungs, potentially causing serious respiratory complications. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the normal range, a blood pressure of 130/85 mm Hg is also within normal limits, and coughing up small amounts of sputum is an expected finding after a bronchoscopy procedure.
Question 9 of 9
A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.