A nurse is assessing a laboring person who is receiving oxytocin for labor induction. What is the most important intervention to prevent uterine hyperstimulation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: increase fetal monitoring. Monitoring the fetus closely is crucial to detect signs of uterine hyperstimulation, such as non-reassuring fetal heart rate patterns. This allows for timely interventions to prevent fetal distress or hypoxia. Monitoring contractions (choice D) is important but does not directly address fetal well-being. Administering an epidural (choice C) may help manage pain but does not prevent uterine hyperstimulation. While monitoring fetal heart rate (choice A) is important, increasing the frequency of monitoring (choice B) is more specific to detecting complications related to oxytocin-induced uterine hyperstimulation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) 9 weeks. In prenatal development, the embryo is termed a fetus at around 9 weeks gestation. This transition marks the end of the embryonic period and the beginning of the fetal period. At this stage, the major organ systems have started to form, and the developing organism is more recognizable as a human. Option A) 2 weeks is too early in the developmental timeline for the embryo to be termed a fetus. At 2 weeks, the developing organism is still in the early stages of embryonic development. Option B) 4 weeks is also too early for the embryo to be called a fetus. At 4 weeks, the embryo is still in the early stages of development, with basic structures forming but not yet fully developed. Option D) 16 weeks is too late for the transition from embryo to fetus. By 16 weeks, the fetus is more advanced in development, with many of its organs and systems already formed and functioning. Understanding the terminology and timeline of prenatal development is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those involved in maternal monitoring during labor. It helps in accurately assessing the stage of development of the fetus and monitoring its progress and well-being throughout pregnancy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Dizygotic twins. In a pregnancy where two amnions and two placentas are observed on ultrasound, it indicates a dichorionic-diamniotic (DCDA) pregnancy. This means that there are two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm, leading to the development of dizygotic twins. Each twin will have its own amniotic sac and placenta. Option B) Monozygotic twins, would typically share a single placenta and may or may not have separate amniotic sacs. In this case, the presence of two placentas rules out a monozygotic twin pregnancy. Option C) Conjoined twins would show physical signs of being connected to each other in some way. The presence of two amnions and two placentas does not support this diagnosis. Option D) High birth-weight twins is not a direct result of the observation of two amnions and two placentas. Birth weight can vary in both monozygotic and dizygotic twin pregnancies. Understanding the different types of twins and how they present on ultrasound is crucial in obstetric pharmacology and maternal monitoring during labor. This knowledge helps healthcare providers anticipate any potential complications and provide appropriate care for the mother and babies.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) They survive up to 5 days and can cause pregnancy. Sperm ejaculated near the cervix can survive in the female reproductive tract for up to 5 days, waiting for an egg to fertilize. This information is crucial for adolescent girls to understand the potential risk of pregnancy even if intercourse occurs a few days before ovulation. Option A) They are destroyed by the acidic pH of the vagina is incorrect because the vagina actually provides a slightly alkaline environment to support the survival of sperm. Option C) They lose their motility in about 12 hours after intercourse is incorrect because sperm can remain motile for several days inside the female reproductive tract. Option D) They are usually pushed out of the vagina by the muscular action of the vaginal wall is incorrect as the cervical mucus and the shape of the cervical canal actually help in transporting sperm towards the uterus. This educational context is important for adolescent girls to make informed decisions about sexual activity and contraception, emphasizing the importance of understanding reproductive physiology to prevent unintended pregnancies.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the basics of genetics is crucial as it underpins drug actions and responses in individuals. The correct answer to the question is A) haploid. The term "haploid" refers to a cell that contains half the usual number of chromosomes, which is 23 in humans. This reduction from the normal 46 chromosomes occurs during the process of gametogenesis, where germ cells undergo meiosis to produce gametes (sperm and egg) with half the genetic material. Option B) DNA is incorrect because DNA refers to the genetic material present in the cell's nucleus, not the chromosome number. Option C) Chromoses is misspelled and does not represent a valid term in genetics. Option D) Plastoderm is an unrelated term not relevant to chromosome reduction during gametogenesis. In the context of maternal monitoring during labor, understanding the genetic processes involved in fertilization and early embryonic development is important for assessing potential genetic risks or abnormalities that could impact the mother or the fetus. Nurses involved in maternal care need to have a strong foundation in genetics to provide accurate information and support to expectant mothers. Understanding the concept of haploid cells and their role in reproduction is fundamental to comprehending genetic inheritance patterns and potential complications that may arise during pregnancy.