ATI RN
Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who may be in the early stages of dehydration. Early manifestations of dehydration include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the early stages of dehydration, the body tries to conserve water, leading to sunken eyeballs due to decreased fluid volume and poor skin turgor as skin loses its elasticity. Thirst or confusion (choice B) occur in moderate dehydration. Increased heart rate with hypotension (choice C) is a sign of severe dehydration. Coma or seizures (choice D) are extreme manifestations of dehydration and do not typically occur in the early stages.
Question 2 of 5
The client is on a cardio-selective beta blocker. Why might this be ordered?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a client with asthma would benefit from a cardio-selective beta blocker since it has less effect on beta-2 receptors in the lungs, thus reducing the risk of bronchoconstriction. Choice A is incorrect because beta blockers do not cause blockage in blood vessels. Choice B is incorrect as hypotension is not a reason for cardio-selective beta blockers. Choice D is incorrect as hypoglycemia is not typically worsened by non-cardio-selective beta blockers.
Question 3 of 5
The client is taking a class IB anti-arrhythmic drug. What drug might that be?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Class IB anti-arrhythmic drugs work by blocking sodium channels. 2. Procainamide is a Class IB anti-arrhythmic drug. 3. Lidocaine (A) is a Class IB anti-arrhythmic drug but more commonly used for acute arrhythmias. 4. Mexiletine (C) is a Class IB anti-arrhythmic drug but less commonly used. 5. Metoprolol (D) is a beta-blocker (Class II) used for other cardiac conditions. In summary, Procainamide is the correct choice as it belongs to the Class IB anti-arrhythmic drugs, while the other options are either less common in this class or belong to different drug classes.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is teaching the client about taking an ACE inhibitor. A typical side effect of an ACE inhibitor explained to the client is what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a dry, persistent cough due to their effect on bradykinin levels. This side effect is important to educate the client about. Bradycardia (B) is not a typical side effect of ACE inhibitors. Hypokalemia (C) is a possible side effect due to increased potassium excretion but is less common than cough. Weight gain (D) is not associated with ACE inhibitors but may occur with other medications like corticosteroids. It's crucial to focus on the most common and relevant side effect when teaching clients.
Question 5 of 5
Priority nursing interventions when a client is on heparin include the following:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the IV site for extravasation. This is crucial because heparin is an anticoagulant medication that can cause bleeding if not administered properly. Monitoring the IV site helps prevent potential complications such as bleeding, hematoma, or tissue damage. Other choices are incorrect: A: Providing antacids for digestive upset is not a priority when a client is on heparin. C: Monitoring signs of acute blood loss is important, but the immediate concern is preventing complications related to heparin administration. D: Monitoring the respiratory rate is not directly related to heparin therapy and is not a priority intervention in this case.