ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes a flushing of the neck and tachycardia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Decrease the infusion rate on the IV. When a client on IV vancomycin experiences flushing of the neck and tachycardia, these are signs of red man syndrome, an adverse reaction to vancomycin characterized by histamine release. Slowing down the infusion rate can help minimize these symptoms by reducing the rapid release of histamine. This action can alleviate the flushing and tachycardia, making it the most appropriate nursing intervention in this situation. Option A) Documenting an anaphylactic reaction is incorrect because the symptoms described are more indicative of red man syndrome, not an anaphylactic reaction. Option B) Changing the IV infusion site is unrelated to the symptoms presented and would not address the underlying issue of histamine release causing the flushing and tachycardia. Option D) Applying cold compresses to the neck area is not the recommended action for red man syndrome. Slowing down the infusion rate is the priority to manage the symptoms effectively. Educationally, understanding the signs and symptoms of common medication reactions like red man syndrome is crucial for nurses administering medications. Knowing appropriate interventions based on these symptoms ensures safe and effective patient care. It highlights the importance of recognizing and responding promptly to adverse drug reactions to promote patient safety.
Question 2 of 5
Why does a nurse on an oncology unit verify a client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin before administering it to a client with breast cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Verifying the client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin is necessary because excessive amounts of the medication can lead to cardiomyopathy, a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect. By monitoring the cumulative dose, healthcare providers can help prevent cardiotoxicity and ensure patient safety during treatment.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has asthma and is beginning to take montelukast. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Montelukast is typically taken once daily in the evening for long-term control of asthma symptoms. It helps prevent asthma attacks by reducing inflammation in the airways. While montelukast can also be used for exercise-induced bronchospasm in some cases, it is generally not a rescue medication and should be taken regularly, not on an as-needed basis.
Question 5 of 5
A client in a critical care unit is postoperative following a right pneumonectomy. After extubation from the ventilator, in which of the following positions should the client be placed?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is crucial for optimal ventilation. This position helps improve lung expansion on the remaining side, facilitating better oxygenation and preventing complications like atelectasis. Placing the client prone, on the nonoperative side, or in Sims' position would not provide the same respiratory benefits post-pneumonectomy.