ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Warmth and redness in the calf are indicative of a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious complication post-surgery that requires immediate attention. Reporting this finding promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a postoperative client and do not indicate a potentially life-threatening condition like DVT.
Question 2 of 5
A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses, for chest pain. This dosing regimen helps relieve chest pain associated with angina by promoting vasodilation. Option A is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue, not swallowed with water. Option B is incorrect because taking nitroglycerin with food may decrease its effectiveness. Option D is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are meant to be dissolved under the tongue, not swallowed whole.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.
Question 4 of 5
A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26/min is a sign of respiratory distress and should be reported promptly in a client with pneumonia. Rapid breathing can indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which may lead to respiratory failure. Crackles in the lung bases are common in pneumonia but may not be as urgent as a high respiratory rate. A blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg is slightly low but may not be immediately life-threatening. A heart rate of 86/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not the most critical finding to report.