ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A weight gain of 0.9 kg (2 lb) in 1 week is an indication of fluid retention, which is concerning in a client with preeclampsia. This can be a sign of worsening condition requiring immediate medical attention. High blood pressure (option A) is expected in preeclampsia, a urine output of 30 mL/hr (option C) is decreased but not as urgent as the weight gain in this scenario, and a respiratory rate of 16/min (option D) is within normal limits.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer an IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is dehydrated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to assess the client's lung sounds before administering IV fluids. This is crucial to identify any signs of fluid overload, such as crackles or wheezes. Administering the solution slowly over 24 hours (choice A) is not appropriate for an IV bolus, which is a rapid infusion. Changing the IV tubing every 12 hours (choice C) is a standard practice for preventing infection but is not directly related to administering an IV bolus. Flushing the IV line with heparin every 4 hours (choice D) is a maintenance practice to prevent clot formation in the line, not specifically related to administering an IV bolus.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's Wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which condition as a result of an interaction between these substances?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome can occur due to the interaction between citalopram, an SSRI, and St. John's Wort, an herbal supplement. Symptoms of serotonin syndrome include confusion, agitation, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, dilated pupils, loss of muscle coordination, and sweating. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the interaction between citalopram and St. John's Wort. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of certain medications, pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of certain antipsychotic medications, and acute dystonia is a movement disorder caused by certain medications like antipsychotics.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a new prescription for levothyroxine is receiving discharge teaching. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Levothyroxine should be taken every morning before breakfast to enhance absorption and maintain consistent thyroid hormone levels. Option A is incorrect because levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach. Option C is incorrect because chest pain is not a common side effect of levothyroxine and stopping the medication abruptly can be harmful. Option D is incorrect because taking levothyroxine at bedtime may result in decreased absorption due to interactions with food and other medications.
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