ATI RN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is 1 day postoperative following a lobectomy with a chest tube drainage system in place. Which finding by the nurse indicates a need for intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Development of subcutaneous emphysema. This finding indicates air leakage, which can lead to potential complications like tension pneumothorax. Subcutaneous emphysema is a serious concern that requires immediate intervention. A: Chest tube eyelets not visible - This is not a concerning finding as long as the chest tube is properly secured and functioning. B: Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber - This can indicate proper functioning of the system. C: Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber - This indicates that the system is working correctly, with the water seal chamber fluctuating with the patient's breathing.
Question 2 of 5
A client is being treated for inhalational anthrax following bioterrorism exposure. Which of the following medications should NOT be expected as a common treatment for anthrax?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Penicillin G. Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis, which is susceptible to ciprofloxacin and doxycycline. Penicillin and amoxicillin are not recommended due to the potential for B. anthracis to produce beta-lactamase, which can make the bacteria resistant to penicillin-based medications. Penicillin G is not effective in treating anthrax and should not be expected as a common treatment option.
Question 3 of 5
A client in a clinic presents with an acute asthma exacerbation. Which of the following medications should reduce the symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Albuterol via a jet nebulizer. Albuterol is a short-acting beta agonist that works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, helping to open them up and improve airflow. When administered via a nebulizer, it provides quick relief during an acute asthma exacerbation by directly targeting the airways. Cromolyn (A) is a mast cell stabilizer that is used for preventing asthma symptoms, not for acute exacerbations. Montelukast (B) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that is used for maintenance therapy, not for immediate relief. Budesonide (C) is an inhaled corticosteroid used for long-term control of asthma, not for acute symptom relief.
Question 4 of 5
A client with asthma is taking fluticasone. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Oral candidiasis. Fluticasone is a corticosteroid inhaler that can cause oral candidiasis as a common adverse effect due to its immunosuppressive properties. The step-by-step rationale is: 1. Fluticasone is a corticosteroid. 2. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune system. 3. Immunosuppression can lead to oral candidiasis. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect of fluticasone. B: Hypertension is not typically associated with fluticasone use. C: Polyuria is not a common side effect of fluticasone.
Question 5 of 5
A client was exposed to anthrax. Which of the following antibiotics should the nurse plan to administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ciprofloxacin. Anthrax is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis, and ciprofloxacin is the recommended antibiotic for treating anthrax due to its effectiveness against this specific bacterium. Ciprofloxacin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication, thus stopping the growth and spread of the anthrax bacteria. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Fluconazole is an antifungal medication and is not effective against bacterial infections like anthrax. C: Tobramycin is an antibiotic primarily used to treat bacterial infections in the eyes, ears, and skin, but it is not the first-line treatment for anthrax. D: Vancomycin is an antibiotic used to treat certain bacterial infections, but it is not the preferred choice for anthrax treatment.