ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clay-colored stools are a classic finding in a client with cirrhosis. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired bile flow, resulting in pale or clay-colored stools due to a lack of bilirubin in the stool. Hypertension, stridor, and elevated temperature are not typically associated with cirrhosis. Hypertension may occur in cirrhosis but is not a consistent finding, stridor is more commonly associated with upper airway obstruction, and elevated temperature may indicate an infection rather than a direct result of cirrhosis.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values indicates the TPN is effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL indicates that the TPN is effective in maintaining normal glucose levels. Hemoglobin level (choice B) is related to anemia and not directly indicative of TPN effectiveness. Albumin level (choice A) is a marker of nutritional status over a longer term and may not reflect immediate TPN effectiveness. White blood cell count (choice C) is related to infection or inflammation and is not a direct indicator of TPN effectiveness.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride IV to a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr. This slow infusion rate is crucial to prevent the development of hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Option A is incorrect because giving the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes can lead to adverse effects. Option B is incorrect as potassium chloride does not necessarily need to be diluted before administration in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as administering the medication undiluted can also increase the risk of hyperkalemia.
Question 5 of 5
A client is being discharged with a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metoprolol is to monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate), so it is essential for clients to check their heart rate before each dose. Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping metoprolol can lead to adverse effects, so it should not be discontinued suddenly. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to take metoprolol at night to reduce falls. Choice D is incorrect because grapefruit juice can interact with metoprolol, affecting its absorption, and should be avoided.