A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hypokalemia, as potassium is essential for proper muscle function. Diarrhea (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Hypertension (choice C) is not typically a direct result of low potassium levels. Bradycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include for a client prescribed digoxin is to notify the provider if they experience nausea or visual changes, as these symptoms can indicate digoxin toxicity. Option A is incorrect because digoxin should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Option B is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Option C is incorrect as taking digoxin based on heart rate alone is not appropriate.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients with hypothyroidism due to slowed metabolic processes. The other choices, such as bradycardia (slow heart rate), weight gain, and hypertension (high blood pressure) are not typically associated with hypothyroidism. Bradycardia can occur due to the decreased metabolic rate, but it is not a consistent finding. Weight gain is common but not universal, and hypertension is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: A. Checking the central line dressing daily is crucial to monitor for signs of infection around the insertion site. This practice helps in early detection of any changes such as redness, swelling, or discharge, which are indicators of a potential infection. Monitoring for signs of redness (choice B) is limited as redness alone may not always indicate an infection; other symptoms like discharge and tenderness should also be observed. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice C) is not directly related to monitoring central line infections. Monitoring temperature (choice D) is important for detecting systemic signs of infection but may not specifically indicate an infection related to the central line site.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Using a hydrocolloid dressing is the appropriate care for a stage 2 pressure ulcer because it provides a moist healing environment, promotes healing, and helps to prevent infection. Cleaning the area with normal saline (Choice A) is important but not the primary treatment for a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Applying antibiotic ointment (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there is a sign of infection. Changing the dressing daily (Choice D) may disrupt the healing process and is not recommended unless the dressing is soiled or compromised.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In patients with heart failure, monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method for assessing fluid balance. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common issue in heart failure patients. Monitoring input and output (B) is essential but may not always accurately reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (C) is important as it can indicate fluid accumulation, but daily weight monitoring is more precise. Monitoring blood pressure (D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Encouraging the client to use an incentive spirometer every hour is crucial to prevent respiratory complications postoperatively. Incentive spirometry helps in lung expansion and prevents atelectasis, which is common after abdominal surgery. Choice A, encouraging ambulation, is important for preventing complications but does not directly address respiratory issues. Choice B, deep breathing and coughing every hour, is also beneficial but not as effective in preventing atelectasis as using an incentive spirometer. Choice D, instructing the client to avoid coughing, is incorrect as coughing helps clear secretions and prevent respiratory complications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Broccoli. Broccoli is high in calcium, making it a suitable recommendation for clients at risk for osteoporosis. Carrots, Cottage cheese, and Bananas are not significant sources of calcium compared to broccoli, and therefore, they are not the best choices to increase calcium intake.