ATI RN
ATI Detailed Answer Key Medical Surgical Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a fracture of the femur. Vital signs are obtained on admission and again in 2 hours. Which of the following changes in assessment should indicate to the healthcare professional that the client could be developing a serious complication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min indicates potential respiratory distress, a serious complication post-fracture. Step 2: Rapid breathing can signify hypoxemia, pulmonary embolism, or infection, requiring immediate intervention. Step 3: Increased oral temperature and blood pressure within normal range are not as critical as respiratory distress. Step 4: A slight increase in heart rate is common after a fracture and not indicative of a serious complication.
Question 2 of 9
How should the nurse respond to Mrs. West’s statement, “Oh well, I have already lived my life anyway.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the patient to express feelings fosters trust and understanding.
Question 3 of 9
A client in an emergency department has a sucking chest wound resulting from a gunshot. The client has a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, a weak pulse rate of 118/min, and a respiratory rate of 40/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. In a client with a sucking chest wound, the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation due to potential respiratory compromise. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula will help improve oxygenation and support the client's respiratory function. This action takes precedence over other interventions as hypoxia can lead to further deterioration. A: Raising the foot of the bed to a 90° angle is not indicated in this situation as it does not address the immediate need for oxygenation. B: Removing the dressing to inspect the wound can worsen the condition by disrupting any seals in place to prevent air from entering the chest cavity. C: Preparing to insert a central line is not the priority in this situation as the client's respiratory status needs to be stabilized first.
Question 4 of 9
For a patient with osteogenic sarcoma, you would be particularly vigilant for elevations in which laboratory value?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated calcium levels are commonly associated with osteogenic sarcoma due to bone destruction and release of calcium into the bloodstream.
Question 5 of 9
What is the primary role of lubricating eye drops?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lubricating drops relieve dryness and discomfort by moisturizing the ocular surface.
Question 6 of 9
Your patient is experiencing exacerbations of systemic lupus erythematosus. What would you expect the physician to prescribe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corticosteroids are used to manage SLE flare-ups.
Question 7 of 9
Priority Decision: The nurse prepares to interview a patient for a nursing history but finds the patient in obvious pain. Which action by the nurse is the best at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Delay the interview until the patient is free of pain.' Pain can interfere with concentration and communication, making it difficult for the patient to provide accurate information. Delaying the interview ensures better quality data collection once the patient is comfortable.
Question 8 of 9
Can a client use massage along with chemotherapy treatments for breast cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Massage therapy can alleviate side effects like pain and fatigue, complementing chemotherapy when approved by healthcare providers.
Question 9 of 9
Which test involves providing quick responses to words like 'mother...', 'work...', et ?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Word Association Test requires clients to quickly respond to words, revealing unconscious thoughts and emotions through their responses.