ATI RN
ATI Vital Signs Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client's body temperature using a temporal artery thermometer. How should the nurse use the temporal artery thermometer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
When using assessment equipment that will touch the patient, what should the nurse do before conducting the assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A 48-year-old high school librarian comes to your clinic, complaining of 1 week of heavy discharge causing severe itching. She is not presently sexually active and has had no burning with urination. The symptoms started several days after her last period. She just finished a course of antibiotics for a sinus infection. Her past medical history consists of type 2 diabetes and high blood pressure. She is widowed and has three children. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father died of diabetes complications. On examination you see a healthy-appearing woman. Her blood pressure is 130/80 and her pulse is 70. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal lymph nodes is unremarkable. On visualization of the vulva, a thick, white, curdy discharge is seen at the introitus. On speculum examination there is a copious amount of this discharge. The pH of the discharge is 4.1 and the KOH whiff test is negative, with no unusual smell. Wet prep shows budding hyphae. What vaginitis does this patient most likely have?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida vaginitis. In this case, the patient's symptoms of heavy discharge, severe itching, and thick, white, curdy discharge at the introitus are indicative of a yeast infection, which is commonly caused by Candida species. The presence of budding hyphae on wet prep further supports this diagnosis, as Candida typically presents with this characteristic. The negative KOH whiff test and pH of 4.1 are consistent with Candida vaginitis, as opposed to Trichomonas vaginitis or bacterial vaginosis, which would have different pH levels and odors. Atrophic vaginitis is unlikely given the patient's age and absence of hormonal changes. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, Candida vaginitis is the most likely diagnosis for this patient.
Question 4 of 5
A 51-year-old cook comes to your office for consultation. She recently found out that her 44-year-old sister with premenopausal breast cancer is positive for the BRCA1 gene. Your patient has been doing research on the Internet and saw that her chance of having also inherited the BRCA1 gene is 50%. She is interested in knowing what her risk of developing breast cancer would be if she were positive for the gene. She denies any lumps in her breasts and has had normal mammograms. She has had no weight loss, fever, or night sweats. Her mother is healthy and her father has prostate cancer. Two of her paternal aunts died of breast cancer. She is married. She denies using tobacco or illegal drugs and rarely drinks alcohol. Her breast and axilla examinations are unremarkable. At her age, what is her risk of getting breast cancer if she has the BRCA1 gene?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (50%). Given the patient's family history of premenopausal breast cancer in her sister with the BRCA1 gene, her risk of developing breast cancer with the gene is 50%. BRCA1 mutations significantly increase the risk of breast cancer. The patient's normal mammograms and lack of breast symptoms do not negate the genetic risk. Options A (10%) and C (80%) are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the elevated risk associated with BRCA1 mutations. Option D is incomplete and cannot be considered as a valid choice. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is B (50%).
Question 5 of 5
A grandmother brings her 13-year-old grandson for evaluation of a collapsed breastbone that has been present for quite awhile. He has no symptoms but is embarrassed about his appearance.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Funnel chest (pectus excavatum). Pectus excavatum is characterized by a depression or concave appearance of the breastbone (sternum). In this case, the 13-year-old grandson has a collapsed breastbone, which aligns with the description of pectus excavatum. This condition is often asymptomatic but can cause embarrassment due to the appearance. Barrel chest (choice A) refers to an increase in the anteroposterior diameter of the chest often seen in conditions like COPD, not related to a collapsed breastbone. Pigeon chest (choice C) is the opposite of pectus excavatum, where the sternum protrudes outward. Thoracic kyphoscoliosis (choice D) involves a combination of kyphosis (excessive outward curvature of the spine) and scoliosis (sideways curvature of the spine), not directly related to a collapsed breastbone.