ATI RN
Professional Nursing Concepts and Challenges Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client during labor and delivery. Which condition should the nurse recognize as a risk factor for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placental abruption is the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. This condition is a significant risk factor for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) because the sudden detachment can lead to massive internal bleeding. The release of large amounts of tissue factor from the placenta into the maternal circulation triggers widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to the consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This uncontrolled activation of the clotting system can result in both excessive clot formation and bleeding, characteristic of DIC. Gestational diabetes, polyhydramnios, and placenta previa are not direct risk factors for DIC.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse instructs a client about the medication nifedipine (Procardia) for hypertension. Which client statement indicates that additional teaching is needed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Swelling of the ankles (edema) is a common side effect of nifedipine (Procardia), especially when starting the medication. However, it is important for the client to understand that while edema is a known side effect, it is not considered normal and should be monitored. The client should report any significant or concerning swelling to their healthcare provider. Options B, C, and D demonstrate good understanding of the medication and its management.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a child with a fractured femur who complains of sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. Which test would the nurse question if it was ordered by the physician?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse would question the order for a D-dimer test in this case. A D-dimer test is a blood test used to help rule out or diagnose blood clots. However, in a child with a fractured femur complaining of sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing, the symptoms suggest the possibility of a pulmonary embolism (PE). In this scenario, a D-dimer test may not be necessary because the clinical presentation warrants more advanced imaging studies such as V/Q scans, CT pulmonary angiography, or MR pulmonary angiography to definitively diagnose or rule out a PE. Therefore, the focus should be on imaging studies rather than a D-dimer test in this situation.
Question 4 of 9
Which is believed to be the cause of preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Preeclampsia is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to other organ systems, most often the liver and kidneys. Placental dysfunction is believed to be the main cause of preeclampsia. In a normal pregnancy, blood vessels in the placenta develop to supply the fetus with nutrients and oxygen. In preeclampsia, these blood vessels don't develop or function properly, leading to inadequate blood flow and reduced supply of nutrients to the placenta. This can result in high blood pressure and affect the function of other organs.
Question 5 of 9
A client admitted with the diagnosis of cardiomyopathy becomes short of breath with ambulation and eating and fatigued with routine care activities. Which nursing diagnosis does the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Activity intolerance is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with cardiomyopathy who becomes short of breath with ambulation and eating and fatigued with routine care activities. Cardiomyopathy is a condition where the heart muscle becomes weakened, affecting its ability to pump blood effectively. As a result, the client may experience symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and decreased tolerance for physical activity. By identifying activity intolerance as a nursing diagnosis, the nurse can focus on addressing the client's limitations in performing activities and developing a plan of care to help improve the client's endurance and functional ability.
Question 6 of 9
A client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) asks the nurse what types of exercise would improve the client's condition and overall health. Which type of exercise will the nurse include in the response to the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), the nurse would recommend low-impact exercises that promote circulation and improve overall health without overstressing the cardiovascular system. Yoga is a beneficial form of exercise for individuals with PVD because it involves gentle movements, controlled breathing, and mindfulness practices that can help improve flexibility, strength, and blood flow. Additionally, yoga can help reduce stress and improve relaxation, which can be beneficial for managing symptoms associated with PVD. Weight lifting and team sports may be too strenuous for individuals with PVD, and passive ROM exercises may not provide the cardiovascular benefits needed for this condition.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client during labor and delivery. Which condition should the nurse recognize as a risk factor for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placental abruption is the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. This condition is a significant risk factor for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) because the sudden detachment can lead to massive internal bleeding. The release of large amounts of tissue factor from the placenta into the maternal circulation triggers widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to the consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This uncontrolled activation of the clotting system can result in both excessive clot formation and bleeding, characteristic of DIC. Gestational diabetes, polyhydramnios, and placenta previa are not direct risk factors for DIC.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is instructing the spouse of a client with a stroke on how to do passive range-of- motion exercises to the affected limbs. Which rationale for this intervention will the nurse include in the teaching session?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Passive range-of-motion exercises are beneficial in maintaining joint flexibility in clients with stroke. These exercises involve moving the client's limbs through a full range of motion, which helps prevent joint contractures and stiffness. Joint flexibility is crucial for maintaining mobility and preventing secondary complications such as pressure ulcers. While passive range-of-motion exercises may indirectly impact muscle strength, cardiorespiratory function, and endurance, the primary rationale for this intervention is to maintain joint flexibility.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with gout asks, “Why is my blood being examined for uric acid?” How should the nurse respond to this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D, “A uric acid test is done to see if your gout medication is effective.” Uric acid is a waste product formed from the breakdown of purines, substances found in certain foods and also produced by the body. In conditions like gout, there is an abnormal accumulation of uric acid in the blood, leading to the formation of urate crystals in the joints, causing pain and inflammation. Monitoring uric acid levels helps in assessing the effectiveness of gout medications in lowering uric acid levels and preventing gout attacks. This test is essential for patients with gout to ensure that their treatment is working effectively and to prevent complications related to high uric acid levels like kidney stones and kidney damage.