A nurse is assessing a 28-year-old man with HIV who has been admitted with pneumonia. In assessing the patient, which of the following observations takes immediate priority?

Questions 101

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

foundation of nursing questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A nurse is assessing a 28-year-old man with HIV who has been admitted with pneumonia. In assessing the patient, which of the following observations takes immediate priority?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachypnea and restlessness. This observation takes immediate priority as it indicates potential respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia in HIV patients. Tachypnea can be a sign of hypoxia, while restlessness may indicate increased work of breathing. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Choice A: Oral temperature of 100F is not an immediate priority as it is within normal range and may not directly impact the patient's immediate condition. Choice C: Frequent loose stools may suggest gastrointestinal issues but are not as urgent as respiratory distress in this scenario. Choice D: Weight loss of 1 pound since yesterday, while relevant in monitoring the patient's condition, does not require immediate intervention compared to respiratory distress.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse is caring for a patient who has had diarrhea for the past week. Which additional assessment finding will the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased skin turgor. Diarrhea leads to fluid loss, causing dehydration and decreased skin turgor. This indicates the patient's hydration status. A: Distended abdomen is more common in conditions like bowel obstruction, not necessarily in diarrhea. C: Increased energy levels are unlikely due to the patient's weakened state from dehydration. D: Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with dehydration.

Question 3 of 9

A child has been transported to the emergency department (ED) after a severe allergic reaction. The ED nurse is evaluating the patients respiratory status. How should the nurse evaluate the patients respiratory status? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: Assessing breath sounds is crucial in evaluating respiratory status as it helps identify any signs of airway obstruction or respiratory distress. This includes listening for wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds. Lung function testing (A) may not be feasible in an acute emergency situation. Oxygen saturation (C) is important but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of respiratory status. Monitoring respiratory pattern (D) and assessing respiratory rate (E) are important but do not directly assess breath sounds, which are vital in identifying immediate respiratory issues.

Question 4 of 9

The public health nurse is addressing eye health and vision protection during an educational event. What statement by a participant best demonstrates an understanding of threats to vision?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because reviewing current medications with a pharmacist is crucial in understanding potential threats to vision. Some medications can have side effects that impact eye health. This proactive approach shows an understanding of how medication can affect vision. Choice A is incorrect because while avoiding direct sunlight is important for eye health, it does not address other potential threats. Choice B is incorrect because regular exercise, while beneficial for overall health, does not directly relate to understanding threats to vision. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring blood pressure is important for cardiovascular health but does not specifically address threats to vision.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse is reviewing the instructions given to a patient at 24 weeks’ gestation for a glucose challenge test (GCT). The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching when she makes which statement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: “I will have blood drawn at 1 hour after I drink the glucose solution.” This statement demonstrates understanding of the GCT procedure. The glucose challenge test involves drinking a sugary solution, followed by blood drawn 1 hour later to measure blood glucose levels. This timing is crucial for assessing the body's ability to metabolize glucose, which helps in diagnosing gestational diabetes. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: A: “I have to fast the night before the test.” - This is incorrect as fasting is not required for the GCT. B: “I will drink a sugary solution containing 100 g of glucose.” - This is incorrect as the GCT typically involves drinking a solution with a standardized amount of glucose, usually 50 g, not 100 g. D: “I should keep track of my baby’s movements between now and the test.” - This is unrelated to the GCT procedure and does not demonstrate understanding of the

Question 6 of 9

A nurse is using core measures to reduce healthdisparities. Which group should the nurse focus on to cause themost improvement in core measures?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Poor people. Focusing on poor people is likely to cause the most improvement in core measures because individuals living in poverty often face multiple barriers to accessing healthcare and have higher rates of chronic conditions. By targeting this group, the nurse can address social determinants of health, improve healthcare access, and address disparities in healthcare outcomes. Other choices (A, C, D) are not as impactful as poverty is a significant factor influencing health disparities.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse wants to reduce data entry errors onthe computer system. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because charting on the computer immediately after care is provided reduces the chances of forgetting important details and ensures accuracy. It also allows for real-time documentation, improving patient care. Choice A is incorrect as using the same password all the time poses a security risk. Choice B is incorrect as sharing passwords compromises confidentiality. Choice C is incorrect as printing out and reviewing notes at home does not address data entry errors on the computer system.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse is caring for an 8-year-old patient whois embarrassed about urinating in bed at night. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to reduce the frequency of this occurrence?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: “Drink your nightly glass of milk earlier in the evening.” By suggesting the patient to drink milk earlier, it allows more time for the body to process and excrete the fluids before bedtime, reducing the likelihood of bedwetting. This intervention targets the root cause of the issue by addressing the timing of fluid intake. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: “Set your alarm clock to wake you every 2 hours, so you can get up to void.” This intervention disrupts the patient's sleep pattern and may not address the underlying cause of bedwetting. B: “Line your bedding with plastic sheets to protect your mattress.” This intervention focuses on managing the consequences of bedwetting rather than preventing it. D: “Empty your bladder completely before going to bed.” While important, this suggestion alone may not be sufficient to address the timing of fluid intake, which is crucial in reducing bedwetting frequency.

Question 9 of 9

A 35-year-old father of three tells the nurse that he wants information on a vasectomy. What would the nurse tell him about ejaculate after a vasectomy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: There is no noticeable decrease in the amount of ejaculate even though it contains no sperm. After a vasectomy, the vas deferens, the tube that carries sperm from the testicles, is cut or blocked. This prevents sperm from being ejaculated, but the seminal fluid produced by the prostate and other glands still makes up the majority of the ejaculate volume. Therefore, although the ejaculate does not contain sperm after a vasectomy, there is no significant change in the amount of fluid ejaculated. Choice A is incorrect because the absence of sperm does not impact the volume of ejaculate. Choice C is incorrect as there is no marked decrease in ejaculate volume. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest that the viscosity of ejaculate changes post-vasectomy.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days