ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is advocating for a patient's rights within the healthcare system. What action by the nurse demonstrates advocacy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Speaking up on behalf of the patient to ensure their needs are met is a key action that demonstrates advocacy by the nurse. Advocacy involves actively supporting and safeguarding the rights of the patient, ensuring that their best interests are being considered within the healthcare system. This may include advocating for appropriate treatment, services, resources, or respect for the patient's autonomy and decision-making. By speaking up for the patient, the nurse is acting as their voice and championing their well-being.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is diagnosed with selective IgA deficiency, a primary immunodeficiency disorder. Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Selective IgA deficiency is a primary immunodeficiency disorder characterized by low or absent levels of immunoglobulin A (IgA) in the blood. Since IgA plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity and defense against pathogens at mucosal surfaces, individuals with this deficiency are more susceptible to recurrent bacterial infections, particularly of the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts. In contrast, severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a more severe immunodeficiency disorder affecting T and B lymphocytes, chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) is a disorder of phagocytes, and autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an autoimmune disease involving red blood cells, none of which are directly associated with selective IgA deficiency.
Question 3 of 9
The patient began receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of packed red blood cells 30 minutes ago. The patient complains of difficulty of breathing, itching and a tight sensation in the chest. Which is the IMMEDIATE action of the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms described by the patient indicate a potential transfusion reaction, such as a hemolytic reaction or allergic reaction. The immediate action the nurse should take in such a situation is to stop the infusion of the packed red blood cells. This will help prevent further complications and ensure the safety of the patient. After stopping the infusion, the nurse should assess the patient's condition, monitor vital signs, and inform the healthcare team, including the physician, regarding the situation. Once the patient is stable, further investigations can be conducted to determine the cause of the reaction.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find in the client with rhinitis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rhinitis is inflammation of the nasal mucosa, and common clinical manifestations include nasal congestion (blockage or stuffiness), rhinorrhea (runny nose), and sneezing. These symptoms are often present in both allergic and non-allergic rhinitis. While headaches, sore throat, and fever can occur in some cases, they are not as specific to rhinitis as nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, and sneezing.
Question 5 of 9
A postpartum client who experienced a vaginal delivery expresses concerns about resuming sexual activity. What information should the nurse provide to address the client's concerns?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Option B is the most appropriate response when addressing a postpartum client's concerns about resuming sexual activity after a vaginal delivery. Educating the client about the normal changes in sexual desire and response following childbirth can help alleviate anxiety and provide reassurance. It is crucial for the nurse to explain that it is common for women to experience changes in libido, physical discomfort, and emotional adjustments after giving birth. By discussing these normal postpartum changes, the nurse can support the client in understanding that her feelings are valid and that it may take time for her to feel ready to engage in sexual activity again. Furthermore, the nurse can provide information on ways to enhance comfort and intimacy when resuming sexual activity, such as communication with partners, using lubricants, and gradually easing back into sexual activity as desired.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and syncope. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a wide QRS complex with absence of P waves. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a potentially life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by wide QRS complexes and absence of P waves on electrocardiogram (ECG). Patients with VT may present with symptoms such as chest pain, dyspnea, and syncope due to reduced cardiac output and ineffective pumping of the heart. VT is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to prevent hemodynamic compromise and potential cardiac arrest. Stable angina typically presents with chest pain that is provoked by exertion and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with absent P waves on ECG. Supraventricular tachycardia typically presents with a narrow QRS complex on ECG.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with limited mobility and is planning interventions to prevent pressure injuries. What action by the nurse demonstrates evidence-based practice in pressure injury prevention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placing the patient on an alternating pressure mattress demonstrates evidence-based practice in pressure injury prevention. Alternating pressure mattresses are designed to change pressure points by alternating pressure across different parts of the body, reducing the risk of pressure injuries. Regularly turning and repositioning the patient (Choice B) is also important in preventing pressure injuries, but an alternating pressure mattress provides additional support and prevention measures. Applying moisturizing lotion (Choice A) and massaging bony prominences (Choice D) may be beneficial for skin care, but they are not proven strategies for pressure injury prevention.
Question 8 of 9
The patient record (charts) are collected every three nights from the various departments. The night nurse is EXPECTED to do the following, EXCEPT,
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The night nurse is expected to collect the patient charts from various departments every three nights. Among the tasks listed, binding the charts as they are is not typically a responsibility of the night nurse. This task is usually handled by administrative staff or professional medical records technicians who are trained to manage the organization and storage of patient charts. The night nurse's primary focus should be on ensuring the correct order of the charts, checking for completeness, and addressing any issues such as torn pages by taping or repairing them to maintain the integrity of the patient records.
Question 9 of 9
Nurse Angie added that oral contraceptives also contains progesterone. Which of the following is the action of progesterone in contraception? It inhibits _______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Progesterone in oral contraceptives works primarily by inhibiting ovulation. It suppresses the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland, which is essential for triggering the release of an egg (ovulation) from the ovary. By blocking ovulation, progesterone helps prevent pregnancy by making it less likely for a mature egg to be available for fertilization. This mechanism of action is a key factor in the effectiveness of progesterone-containing contraceptives in preventing pregnancy.