A nurse is administering doxorubicin to a patient in the outpatient oncology clinic. Which information would be most important for the nurse to include in patient teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Option C is correct because doxorubicin is known to cause cardiotoxicity. Symptoms like shortness of breath, palpitations, and edema could indicate heart-related issues and need immediate medical attention to prevent serious complications. Summary of other choices: A: Incorrect. Doxorubicin commonly causes bone marrow suppression leading to low blood counts. B: Incorrect. Alopecia (hair loss) is a common side effect of doxorubicin. D: Incorrect. Tissue necrosis is not a typical side effect of doxorubicin.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competitively blocks opioid receptors, reversing the effects of opioid overdose such as respiratory depression. It has a rapid onset of action and can quickly restore normal breathing. A: Fentanyl is an opioid agonist, and administering more opioids would worsen respiratory depression. C: Butorphanol is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist, which may not be as effective in reversing respiratory depression compared to a pure antagonist like naloxone. D: Sufenta is an opioid agonist similar to fentanyl, so it would not reverse respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: immunoglobulin E (IgE). IgE is responsible for mediating Type I immediate hypersensitivity reactions, such as allergic reactions. IgE binds to allergens and triggers the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators from mast cells, leading to symptoms like hives and anaphylaxis. IgG (B), IgA (C), and IgM (D) are not typically involved in Type I allergic reactions. IgG is involved in Type II and Type III hypersensitivity reactions, IgA is related to mucosal immunity, and IgM is mainly involved in the primary immune response.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pituitary somatotrophs. Octreotide is a somatostatin analog that inhibits the release of growth hormone. Somatotrophs in the pituitary gland are the cells responsible for producing and releasing growth hormone. By acting on these cells, octreotide can effectively reduce the elevated levels of growth hormone seen in acromegaly. Supraoptic neurons (A) are responsible for producing and releasing vasopressin, not growth hormone. Pituitary thyrotrophs (C) produce and release thyroid-stimulating hormone, not growth hormone. Paraventricular neurons (D) are involved in regulating oxytocin release, not growth hormone. Therefore, the main site of action of octreotide in acromegaly is on pituitary somatotrophs.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cabergoline. Cabergoline is a dopamine agonist used to treat hyperprolactinemia. It is appropriate to add to therapy if the patient has hyperprolactinemia symptoms. Cosyntropin (A) is a synthetic ACTH used to test adrenal gland function. Mecasermin (B) is a recombinant IGF-1 used to treat growth hormone insensitivity. Leuprolide (C) is a GnRH agonist used to treat conditions like endometriosis and prostate cancer. None of these options are appropriate for hyperprolactinemia, making D the correct choice.