A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?

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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B Questions

Question 1 of 9

A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse is providing home care for a client who is receiving tube feedings and medication through a gastrostomy tube. The family member providing the feedings reports that the client has begun to have diarrhea. For which of the following practices should the nurse intervene?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cleansing the bag every 24 hours can lead to contamination, increasing the risk of infection and diarrhea. Using tap water (choice C) is not recommended for cleaning the gastrostomy tube due to the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms. Cleansing the bag every 48 hours (choice B) is not frequent enough and may also contribute to infection. Flushing the tube every 4 hours (choice D) is a standard practice to ensure patency and should not be intervened by the nurse.

Question 3 of 9

A client has a new prescription for guaifenesin. What information regarding the action of guaifenesin should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increases cough production.' Guaifenesin is an expectorant that works by increasing cough production to help clear secretions from the airways. Option A is incorrect because guaifenesin does not decrease mucus production but rather helps to make the mucus easier to cough up. Option B is incorrect as guaifenesin does not reduce nasal congestion. Option D is incorrect because guaifenesin does not have any effect on reducing fever.

Question 4 of 9

A healthcare provider is providing teaching for a patient with a prescription for oral metronidazole, what is the priority teaching point?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Report a rash.' Metronidazole can cause severe adverse reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a life-threatening rash. It is crucial to educate the patient to report any rash immediately to prevent serious complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while they may be relevant to consider during metronidazole therapy, they are not the priority teaching point. Headaches can occur but are not as serious as a rash; avoiding sunlight is more related to doxycycline, not metronidazole; and taking with meals is a general instruction for some medications but not the priority teaching point for metronidazole.

Question 5 of 9

A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. Which finding indicates that the propranolol is effective?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a decrease in blood pressure is an expected outcome when propranolol, a beta-blocker, is effectively managing hyperthyroidism. Propranolol helps control symptoms such as tachycardia and hypertension associated with hyperthyroidism. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased energy, and an increased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of propranolol's effectiveness in treating hyperthyroidism.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is planning a staff education program to review nursing interventions for clients who have kidney failure. Which of the following sources should the nurse identify as the best resource for obtaining evidence-based information?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A peer-reviewed nursing research article is the best resource for obtaining evidence-based information because it provides the most current and reliable data on nursing interventions. Choice A, the advice of an expert nephrology nurse, may be helpful but could be based on individual experience rather than the latest research. Retrospective chart reviews (Choice B) focus on past cases and may not reflect current best practices. Facility critical pathways (Choice C) offer standardized care plans but may not always incorporate the most up-to-date evidence-based practices.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following is a recommended approach for handling aggressive behavior in a mental health setting?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The recommended approach for handling aggressive behavior in a mental health setting is to maintain eye contact, offer clear choices, and set boundaries. This approach can help de-escalate the situation by establishing communication and structure. Choice A is incorrect as encouraging physical activity may not be suitable during an aggressive episode. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding eye contact can hinder communication and resolution. Choice C is also incorrect as pharmacological interventions should not be the immediate go-to method for managing aggression unless absolutely necessary.

Question 9 of 9

After a case manager completes a history and physical assessment for a client with COPD, which of the following actions should the case manager take next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: After completing a history and physical assessment for a client with COPD, the next step for the case manager should be to call the provider with a list of client concerns. This is crucial as the provider needs to be informed about any issues or changes in the client's health status to ensure appropriate management. Identifying the client's current health needs, as mentioned in option B, is important but would typically follow after communicating the client's concerns to the provider. Compiling a list of community resources (option C) and referring the client to a COPD support group (option D) are also valuable actions but are not the immediate next steps after completing the assessment.

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