Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is providing home care for a client who is receiving tube feedings and medication through a gastrostomy tube. The family member providing the feedings reports that the client has begun to have diarrhea. For which of the following practices should the nurse intervene?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cleansing the bag every 24 hours can lead to contamination, increasing the risk of infection and diarrhea. Using tap water (choice C) is not recommended for cleaning the gastrostomy tube due to the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms. Cleansing the bag every 48 hours (choice B) is not frequent enough and may also contribute to infection. Flushing the tube every 4 hours (choice D) is a standard practice to ensure patency and should not be intervened by the nurse.

Question 3 of 5

A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.

Question 4 of 5

A client has bilateral eye patches following an injury. When the client's food tray arrives, which of the following interventions should the nurse take to promote independence in eating?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Describing the location of food on the tray helps promote independence for the client with bilateral eye patches. By providing clear instructions on where the food is placed, the client can independently locate and consume their meal. Option A is incorrect as physically placing the client's hands on the tray does not encourage independence. Option B is unnecessary unless there are specific dietary restrictions indicated. Option C does not promote the client's independence and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.

Question 5 of 5

What is a key component of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The main components of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure include advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise to improve cardiovascular health and overall well-being. While fluid restriction and dietary recommendations are important aspects of heart failure management, advising on physical activity and exercise is crucial for improving cardiac function and quality of life post-discharge. Medication management is also essential but focusing on physical activity is particularly relevant for long-term management and preventing readmissions.

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