ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse identifies Fatigue as a health problem and nursing diagnosis for a client receiving home care for metastatic cancer. What statement or question would be best to validate this client problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it involves collaboration with the client to validate their experience. It shows respect for the client's perspective and promotes open communication. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks client involvement. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the nurse's interpretation rather than the client's experience. Choice C is incorrect as it may come off as accusatory or judgmental, lacking empathy.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse assesses that a patient has not voided in 6 hours. Which question should the nurse ask to assist in establishing a nursing diagnosis of Urinary retention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Asking if the patient feels the need to go to the bathroom helps assess urgency. 2. Urinary retention may lead to the inability to sense the urge to void. 3. This question directly addresses the issue of voiding, crucial in diagnosing urinary retention. Summary: B: Mobility is not directly related to urinary retention. C: Medication timing is important but not directly related to urinary retention. D: Safety rail inquiry is more related to fall prevention, not urinary retention.
Question 3 of 9
When caring for a client diagnosed with a brain tumor of the parietal lobe, the nurse expects to assess:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tactile agnosia. When assessing a client with a parietal lobe brain tumor, the nurse would expect to assess for tactile agnosia as the parietal lobe is responsible for processing sensory information, including touch and spatial awareness. Tactile agnosia is the inability to recognize objects by touch. This impairment is commonly associated with parietal lobe lesions. Short-term memory impairment (A) is more commonly associated with temporal lobe lesions. Seizures (B) are more commonly associated with frontal lobe lesions. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia (D) is associated with occipital lobe lesions. In summary, the parietal lobe tumor would likely manifest as tactile agnosia due to its role in sensory processing, making it the most relevant assessment finding in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse use to document a finding that the patient’s ear is draining?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Otorrhea. Otorrhea refers to the discharge of fluid from the ear, indicating an abnormal finding of ear drainage. This term specifically describes the symptom of ear drainage, making it the most appropriate choice for documenting this finding. Otalgia (choice B) refers to ear pain, ototoxic (choice C) refers to substances that are harmful to the ear, and tinnitus (choice D) refers to ringing in the ears, none of which accurately describe ear drainage. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it specifically addresses the symptom of ear drainage.
Question 5 of 9
Morphine is given in acute pulmonary edema to redistribute the pulmonary circulation to the periphery by decreasing:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because morphine helps in acute pulmonary edema by decreasing peripheral resistance, pulmonary capillary pressure, and transudation of fluid. Morphine causes vasodilation, reducing peripheral resistance, which helps redistribute blood flow to the periphery. It also reduces pulmonary capillary pressure by decreasing preload and afterload, leading to decreased fluid transudation into the alveoli. Choices A, B, and C individually do not cover all the effects of morphine in acute pulmonary edema, making them incorrect.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse administers chemotherapeutic drugs to a client with cancer. What adverse effects are most common?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nausea and vomiting. Chemotherapeutic drugs commonly cause nausea and vomiting due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system. This is because these drugs can irritate the stomach lining and trigger the vomiting center in the brain. Nausea and vomiting are well-documented side effects of chemotherapy and are often managed with antiemetic medications. A: Painful mouth sores are a common side effect of some chemotherapeutic drugs, but they are not the most common adverse effect. C: Frequent diarrhea can occur as a side effect of chemotherapy, but it is less common than nausea and vomiting. D: Constipation is not a common adverse effect of chemotherapeutic drugs; in fact, diarrhea is more commonly seen.
Question 7 of 9
A 40 year old woman with aplastic anemia is prescribed estrogen with progesterone. The nurse can expect that these medications are given for which of the following reasons?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To stimulate bone growth. Estrogen and progesterone are hormones that play a crucial role in maintaining bone density and promoting bone growth. In postmenopausal women or individuals with conditions like aplastic anemia, bone health can be compromised. Estrogen helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength, while progesterone also contributes to bone formation. Therefore, in this scenario, these medications are likely prescribed to help improve bone health in the woman with aplastic anemia. Incorrect choices: B: Estrogen and progesterone do not directly enhance sodium and potassium levels. C: Estrogen and progesterone do not regulate fluid balance absorption directly. D: Estrogen and progesterone do not specifically promote utilization and storage of fluids.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is the most important assessment during the acute stage of an unconscious patient like Mr. Franco?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - Patency of airway and adequacy of respiration. This is the most important assessment during the acute stage of an unconscious patient like Mr. Franco because maintaining a clear airway and ensuring proper breathing are crucial for sustaining life. Without a patent airway and adequate respiration, the patient's oxygen supply could be compromised, leading to serious complications such as hypoxia or respiratory failure. Monitoring the airway and respiratory status takes precedence over other assessments in this scenario. A: Level of awareness and response to pain - While important, assessing level of awareness and response to pain is secondary to ensuring a patent airway and adequate respiration in an unconscious patient. B: Papillary reflexes and response to sensory stimuli - While these assessments provide valuable information about neurological function, they are not as critical as maintaining a clear airway and proper breathing in an unconscious patient. C: Coherence and sense of hearing - Coherence and sense of hearing are not as vital as
Question 9 of 9
A client agreed to become an organ donor is pronounced dead. What is the most important factor in selecting a transplant recipient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Compatible blood and tissue types. This is crucial to minimize the risk of rejection and ensure a successful transplant. Matching blood and tissue types help prevent the recipient's immune system from attacking the new organ. Blood relationship (A) is not as important as compatibility. Sex and size (C) are important considerations for certain transplants but not the most crucial factor. Need (D) is relevant but does not outweigh the importance of compatibility to ensure a successful transplant.