ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse has taught the patient how to use crutches.The patient went up and down the stairs using crutches with no difficulties. Which information will the nurse use for the “I” in PIE charting?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Used crutches with no difficulties Rationale: 1. "Used crutches with no difficulties" reflects the patient's successful application of the taught skill. 2. This information indicates the patient's ability to independently perform the task. 3. It demonstrates the effectiveness of the teaching provided by the nurse. 4. "Used crutches with no difficulties" is a specific and objective observation of the patient's performance. Summary: A. "Patient went up and down stairs" is too general and does not indicate the patient's proficiency. B. "Demonstrated use of crutches" does not confirm the patient's actual performance. D. "Deficient knowledge related to never using crutches" is incorrect as it does not reflect the patient's successful use of crutches.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is explaining that each breast contains 12 to 20 cone-shaped lobes. The nurse should explain that each lobe consists of what elements?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lobules and ducts. Each lobe of the breast consists of lobules, which are responsible for milk production, and ducts, which transport the milk to the nipple. This is essential for breastfeeding. Modified tendons and ligaments (choice A) are not present in the lobes of the breast. Connective tissue and smooth muscle (choice B) are important components of the breast but do not specifically make up the lobes. Endocrine glands and sebaceous glands (choice D) are not the primary elements within the lobes of the breast responsible for milk production and transport. The lobules and ducts are vital components for the functioning of the breast in lactation.
Question 3 of 9
Which factor is most importaNnt iRn diIminGishiBng. mCateMrnal, fetal, and neonatal complications in a U S N T O pregnant patient with diabetes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Degree of glycemic control before and during the pregnancy. Proper glycemic control is crucial in managing complications in a pregnant patient with diabetes. Uncontrolled blood sugar levels can lead to maternal, fetal, and neonatal complications. Monitoring and maintaining stable blood glucose levels before and during pregnancy help reduce the risk of adverse outcomes. A: Evaluation of retinopathy by an ophthalmologist - Although important for overall health, retinopathy does not directly impact maternal, fetal, and neonatal complications in diabetes during pregnancy. B: The patient’s stable emotional and psychological status - While emotional and psychological well-being are important, they do not directly affect complications related to diabetes in pregnancy. D: Total protein excretion and creatinine clearance within normal limits - While these are indicators of kidney function, they are not the most crucial factors in managing complications in a pregnant patient with diabetes.
Question 4 of 9
While reviewing the health history of an older adult experiencing hearing loss the nurse notes the patient has had no trauma or loss of balance. What aspect of this patients health history is most likely to be linked to the patients hearing deficit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Previous perforation of the eardrum. A perforated eardrum can lead to hearing loss as it affects the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear. This is the most likely link to the patient's hearing deficit as trauma or injury to the eardrum can directly impact hearing. Incorrect choices: A: Recent completion of radiation therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer - Radiation therapy for thyroid cancer typically does not directly affect hearing. B: Routine use of quinine for management of leg cramps - Quinine use is associated with tinnitus (ringing in the ears) but not typically with hearing loss. C: Allergy to hair coloring and hair spray - Allergy to hair products is not directly related to hearing loss. In summary, the most likely cause of the patient's hearing deficit based on the health history provided is the previous perforation of the eardrum, as it directly affects the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is admitting an oncology patient to the unit prior to surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the patient has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Impaired wound healing. Radiation therapy can lead to damage to the skin and blood vessels, affecting wound healing. The nurse should prioritize assessing the patient's skin integrity and any signs of impaired wound healing to prevent complications post-surgery. A: Cognitive deficits - While radiation therapy can impact cognitive function in some cases, it is not the most immediate concern related to surgery post-radiation therapy. C: Cardiac tamponade - Although radiation therapy can increase the risk of heart-related issues, such as pericarditis, cardiac tamponade is a rare and acute complication that is not the most likely immediate concern post-radiation therapy. D: Tumor lysis syndrome - This syndrome is more commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. It is not typically a concern immediately post-radiation therapy.
Question 6 of 9
A man tells the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer and he is concerned about his own risk of developing the disease, having heard that prostate cancer has a genetic link. What aspect of the pathophysiology of prostate cancer would underlie the nurses response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because several studies have indeed shown an association between BRCA-2 mutation and an increased risk of prostate cancer. BRCA-2 mutation is known to be linked to an increased risk of various cancers, including prostate cancer. This genetic mutation can be inherited and passed down through generations, leading to a higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because: B: HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) is not specifically associated with prostate cancer, and it is not an autosomal dominant mutation causing prostate cancer in men. C: TP53 gene is associated with other types of cancers, such as breast cancer, but not strongly linked to prostate cancer. D: Research has shown that genetics do play a role in the development of prostate cancer, contradicting the statement that genetics are unrelated to the disease.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has just returned to the unit from the PACU after surgery for a tumor within the spine. The patient complains of pain. When positioning the patient for comfort and to reduce injury to the surgical site, the nurse will position to patient in what position?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In a flat side-lying position. Rationale: 1. A flat side-lying position helps reduce pressure on the surgical site, promoting comfort and preventing injury. 2. This position minimizes strain on the spine and supports proper alignment. 3. High Fowlers position may increase pressure on the surgical area due to increased intra-abdominal pressure. 4. Trendelenberg position and reverse Trendelenberg position are not appropriate for spine surgery patients as they can cause increased blood flow to the surgical site, leading to potential complications.
Question 8 of 9
A child goes to the school nurse and complains of not being able to hear the teacher. What test could the school nurse perform that would preliminarily indicate hearing loss?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Whisper test. The nurse can perform a whisper test by whispering a series of numbers or words at a distance from the child to see if they can repeat them accurately. If the child struggles to hear and repeat the whispered words, it could indicate hearing loss. Rationale: A: Audiometry is a comprehensive hearing test that measures the range and sensitivity of hearing, not suitable for a quick preliminary assessment. B: Rinne test and D: Weber test are both tuning fork tests used to assess conductive and sensorineural hearing loss, not ideal for a quick initial screening of hearing loss. Summary: The Whisper test is the most suitable choice as it provides a quick and simple way to preliminarily assess hearing loss by evaluating the child's ability to hear and repeat whispered sounds accurately.
Question 9 of 9
A public health nurse is preparing an educational campaign to address a recent local increase in the incidence of HIV infection. The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Educational programs that focus on control and prevention. This intervention is the most crucial as it directly addresses the issue of the increasing incidence of HIV infection. By providing education on how to control and prevent the spread of HIV, the nurse can empower the community to take proactive measures to reduce transmission rates. A: Lifestyle actions that improve immune function may be helpful in general health promotion but do not directly target the prevention of HIV transmission. C: Appropriate use of standard precautions is important but is more focused on healthcare settings rather than community-wide prevention efforts. D: Screening programs for youth and young adults are valuable but may not be as effective as educational programs in preventing the spread of HIV.