ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse has just completed a suicide risk assessment of a 76-year-old widowed man. In addition to documenting the presence or absence of suicidal thoughts, plan, and means, the nurse would also document which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of substances 6 hours before the assessment. This is important to assess as substance use can increase the risk of impulsive behavior and exacerbate suicidal thoughts. It is crucial to determine if the individual has recently used substances as it may impact their judgment and decision-making. The other choices are not directly related to immediate risk assessment for suicide. Speech patterns (B) may provide insight into the individual's mental state, but substance use takes precedence in assessing immediate risk. Availability of support resources (C) is important for long-term prevention but does not address immediate risk. The amount of sleep in the past 24 hours (D) may impact mental health but does not directly assess immediate risk of suicide.
Question 2 of 5
A client is prescribed disulfiram as part of his alcohol treatment program to prevent relapse. The client asks the nurse, 'How will this drug help me?' Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It can help to prevent you from drinking. Disulfiram works by causing unpleasant symptoms (such as nausea, vomiting, and headache) when alcohol is consumed, acting as a deterrent to drinking. This helps the client stay sober and avoid relapse. Incorrect choices: A: It will help to cure your alcoholism - Disulfiram does not cure alcoholism but helps manage it. C: It makes the withdrawal symptoms less troublesome - Disulfiram does not address withdrawal symptoms. D: It helps to clear the alcohol out of your body - Disulfiram does not clear alcohol from the body but rather prevents its metabolism, leading to adverse effects if alcohol is consumed.
Question 3 of 5
A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric setting. During the acute phase of mania, which medication would the nurse expect to most likely administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Haloperidol lactate (Haldol). In the acute phase of mania, antipsychotic medications like haloperidol are commonly used to manage symptoms such as agitation, hyperactivity, and psychosis. Haloperidol helps to reduce dopamine activity in the brain, which can help stabilize mood and behavior during manic episodes. Lithium (A) is more commonly used for long-term mood stabilization in bipolar disorder. Fluoxetine (C) and Paroxetine (D) are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) used for depression and not recommended during mania due to the risk of worsening manic symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is performing an assessment interview of a 14-year-old boy who is being admitted to an adolescent substance abuse unit. His parents are concerned about their son's repeated problems at school that they associate with his drug use. The boy stalks into the office, abruptly sits down, crosses his arms, and says, 'Okay, ask your stupid questions, but don't expect me to cooperate!' Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D because it acknowledges the boy's emotions, shows empathy, and invites him to share his feelings. By acknowledging his upset feelings, the nurse can build rapport and establish trust, which is crucial in therapeutic communication. This response also opens the door for the boy to express himself and potentially reveal the underlying reasons for his behavior. Choices A and C are confrontational and judgmental, which can escalate the situation and hinder communication. Choice B suggests waiting until the boy calms down, which may be dismissive of his emotions and doesn't address the immediate need for connection and understanding.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse on an acute med-surgical unit is performing assessments on a group of clients. Which is the highest priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the client with surgical hypoparathyroidism and positive Trousseau's sign indicates a potential life-threatening condition due to hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, which can lead to serious complications such as seizures and tetany. This client needs immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Choice B is incorrect because while Clostridium difficile with acute diarrhea requires prompt treatment, it is not as immediately life-threatening as hypocalcemia. Choice C is incorrect as well, as although acute kidney injury is serious, a low specific gravity alone does not necessarily indicate an immediate threat to the client's life. Choice D is also incorrect as oral cancer with a sore on the gums, while concerning, is not an immediate priority compared to the potential life-threatening complications of hypocalcemia.