ATI RN
Nursing Process Quizlet Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse has instituted a turn schedule for a patient to prevent skin breakdown. Upon evaluation, the nurse finds that the patient has a stage II pressure ulcer on the buttocks. Which action will the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reassess the patient and situation. The nurse should reassess to determine the cause of the pressure ulcer, evaluate the effectiveness of the current turning schedule, and identify any contributing factors. This allows for a more targeted intervention plan. B: Incorrect. Simply increasing the frequency of turning may not address the underlying issue causing the pressure ulcer. C: Incorrect. Delegating turning to nursing assistive personnel without reassessment may not address the root cause of the pressure ulcer. D: Incorrect. Applying medication without reassessment may not address the underlying cause of the pressure ulcer and could potentially worsen the condition.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff statements justifies the administration of the prescribed anticonvulsant phenytoin to a client before the intracranial surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to prevent seizures. Step 2: Anticonvulsants are often given before surgery to reduce the risk of seizures during and after the procedure. Step 3: In the context of intracranial surgery, controlling seizures is crucial to prevent complications like increased intracranial pressure. Step 4: Therefore, administering phenytoin before surgery helps in reducing the risk of seizures before and after the procedure. Summary: - Option B (avoid intraoperative complications) is too broad and doesn't directly relate to the use of phenytoin. - Option C (reduce cerebral edema) is not the primary indication for phenytoin in this scenario. - Option D (prevent postoperative vomiting) is not a common reason for administering phenytoin before intracranial surgery.
Question 3 of 9
While planning for proportionate distribution of restricted fluid volumes, what is the reason for a nurse to ensure that the client is actively involved during the development of the plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Involving the client in planning increases their understanding and ownership of the plan. Step 2: Understanding leads to better compliance with therapy recommendations. Step 3: Compliance improves outcomes and prevents complications. Step 4: Thus, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D lack direct links to client involvement in planning and compliance.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is the medication of choice for anaphylaxis that the nurse should anticipate would be ordered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epinephrine. In anaphylaxis, epinephrine is the medication of choice due to its rapid onset of action and ability to reverse severe allergic reactions. It acts by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. This helps counteract the dangerous drop in blood pressure and airway constriction seen in anaphylaxis. Digoxin, theophylline, and furosemide are not appropriate for anaphylaxis as they do not address the immediate life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.
Question 5 of 9
Toni’s disease process involves a sacral plexus. Assessment should include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a disease process involving the sacral plexus can impact bladder function (choice A), sexual activity (choice B), and bowel management (choice C). The sacral plexus is responsible for innervating pelvic organs and lower limb muscles, so dysfunction in this area can lead to issues in these functions. Bladder problems can manifest as urinary retention or incontinence, sexual activity may be affected due to changes in sensation or muscle control, and bowel management can be disrupted leading to constipation or incontinence. Therefore, assessing all these areas is crucial to understand the full impact of the disease process on the individual's quality of life.
Question 6 of 9
Which white blood cells are involved in releasing histamine during an allergic reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Basophils. Basophils are a type of white blood cell that release histamine during allergic reactions. They contain granules filled with histamine, which is released when they encounter an allergen. Monocytes, eosinophils, and neutrophils do not release histamine during allergic reactions. Monocytes are involved in immune response and inflammation, eosinophils are responsible for combating parasitic infections, and neutrophils are primarily involved in fighting bacterial infections.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff is the main reason why older clients with AIDS need more care than their younger counterparts?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because older clients with AIDS have a faster progression of the disease due to age-related changes in the immune system, making them more vulnerable to complications. This results in a greater need for care compared to younger counterparts. Choice A is incorrect as lack of balanced diet and activity does not directly relate to the progression of AIDS. Choice B is incorrect as knowledge about disorders is not the main factor affecting the level of care needed. Choice D is incorrect as adherence to therapy is important but not the main reason older clients need more care.
Question 8 of 9
Which action should the nurse take first during the initial phase of implementation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reassess the patient. During the initial phase of implementation, the nurse should first reassess the patient to gather current data and evaluate the effectiveness of previous interventions. This step ensures that the nurse has updated information to make informed decisions about the patient's care. A: Determining patient outcomes and goals should come after reassessment. B: Prioritizing nursing diagnoses is important but should be based on current assessment data. C: Evaluating interventions should be done after implementing them and giving them time to take effect.
Question 9 of 9
Mr. Kawasaki, a 23-year old industrial worker, was burned severely in an industrial accident. He has second degree burns on his right leg and arm, and on his left leg. He has third degree burns on his left arm. The triage nurse, using the rule of nines, estimates the extent of burn as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The rule of nines is a method used to estimate the extent of burns on a patient's body. According to this rule, each major body part is assigned a percentage value that represents the total body surface area (TBSA). In this case, Mr. Kawasaki has second-degree burns on his right leg and arm (9% each) and left leg (9%) and third-degree burns on his left arm (9%). Adding these percentages together, we get a total of 36%, which corresponds to the extent of burn on Mr. Kawasaki's body. Choice A (18%) is incorrect because it only considers one arm and one leg, neglecting the other affected areas. Choice B (45%) is incorrect as it overestimates the extent of burns by including additional body parts not affected. Choice D (54%) is also incorrect as it includes more body parts than those actually burned. Therefore, the correct answer is C (36%) as it accurately reflects the distribution of burns based