ATI RN
Ethics and Issues in Contemporary Nursing PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse has been asked to serve as the charge nurse on the evening shift. The agency where the nurse is employed is considering unionization. If the charge nurse position is accepted, this nurse:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Charge nurses are typically considered part of the nursing staff, not part of the management team. Step 2: Since charge nurses are not considered part of the management team, they are eligible to be represented by the union. Step 3: Being part of the union means the charge nurse can benefit from collective bargaining activities and have a voice in workplace decisions. Step 4: Choice A is correct as it aligns with the general understanding of charge nurses' roles and their eligibility for union representation. Summary: Choice B is incorrect because charge nurses are not typically considered part of the management team, so union participation would not necessarily be a conflict of interest. Choice C is incorrect because union representation does not automatically mean filing grievances that will be arbitrated. Choice D is incorrect because charge nurses can participate in collective bargaining activities related to unfair labor practices if they are represented by the union.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is removing a saturated dressing from an abdominal incision and must cut the tape to remove the dressing. The nurse accidentally cuts the sutures holding the incision, and evisceration occurs. In quality improvement, this incident is best identified as a:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: sentinel event. A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological harm to a patient. In this scenario, the accidental cutting of sutures leading to evisceration constitutes a serious harm to the patient, making it a sentinel event. This event requires immediate investigation, analysis, and implementation of preventive measures to ensure patient safety. A: Root cause refers to the underlying reason for a problem, not the event itself. C: Variation in performance is related to inconsistencies in processes, not a specific critical incident like evisceration. D: Causal factor is a contributing element to an event, but it does not capture the severity and significance of a sentinel event like evisceration.
Question 3 of 9
Which task is most likely to be considered in a state's practice act as appropriate to delegate to a LPN/LVN if the patient's condition is stable and competence in the task has been established?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Teaching a patient how to instill eye drops for glaucoma is a task that can be appropriately delegated to an LPN/LVN when the patient is stable and competence has been established. Here's the rationale: 1. Teaching is within the scope of practice for LPN/LVNs as it involves providing education and instructions to patients. 2. Administering medications IV (option B) requires a higher level of assessment and monitoring skills, making it inappropriate for delegation to an LPN/LVN. 3. Developing a plan of care (option C) involves critical thinking and decision-making skills beyond the scope of an LPN/LVN. 4. Administering an enema (option A) may involve assessing the patient's condition and response, which is beyond the typical scope of an LPN/LVN.
Question 4 of 9
Throughout the history of health care in our nation, one particular piece of federal legislation provided funds for hospital construction. As the number of hospitals rapidly increased, the need for nurses to staff hospitals also increased, and the shift from community-based nursing care to hospital-based nursing care began. This fundamental piece of legislation was the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hill-Burton Act. The Hill-Burton Act, passed in 1946, provided federal funds for hospital construction, leading to a significant increase in the number of hospitals. This increase in hospital facilities created a higher demand for nurses to staff them, thereby initiating the shift from community-based nursing care to hospital-based care. The Sheppard-Towner Act (A) focused on maternal and child health programs, not hospital construction. The Veterans Bill (C) primarily addresses healthcare benefits for veterans. The Access to Health Care Bill (D) is a generic term and does not refer to a specific piece of legislation related to hospital construction or nursing staffing.
Question 5 of 9
A potential applicant reviews the application process and learns that preemployment physicals often include:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: urine drug screening. Preemployment physicals commonly include urine drug screening to ensure that job applicants are free from illegal substances. This step is crucial for workplace safety and productivity. Cholesterol screening (A) is not typically part of preemployment physicals unless specifically required by the employer. Pregnancy testing (B) is considered discriminatory and is not standard practice. Vision and hearing tests (D) may be included in preemployment physicals, but they are not as common as urine drug screening for ensuring a drug-free workplace.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse wants to become an advanced practice nurse and investigates the requirements for a: (select all that apply)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: nurse practitioner. Nurse practitioners are advanced practice nurses who provide comprehensive healthcare services, including diagnosing and managing common acute and chronic illnesses. They require additional education and certification beyond basic nursing. Nurse executives focus on leadership and management roles in healthcare organizations, not direct patient care. Certified nurse-midwives specialize in providing prenatal, postpartum, and gynecological care to women. Certified registered nurse anesthetists specialize in administering anesthesia but do not provide the same scope of primary care as nurse practitioners.
Question 7 of 9
A clinical nurse leader (CNL) enters the workforce and hopes to use her interdisciplinary skills to participate on a quality improvement committee. The coordinator of the quality group invites the CNL to join the group. Which type of power is demonstrated by the coordinator of the group?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Legitimate. The coordinator's power is based on their legitimate authority to invite individuals to join the quality improvement committee. Legitimate power is derived from one's position or role within an organization, giving them the right to make decisions and direct activities. In this scenario, the coordinator's invitation is based on their legitimate authority as the leader of the quality group. Choice A: Coercive power involves the use of threats or punishment to influence others, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice B: Transformational power focuses on inspiring and motivating others to achieve a common goal, which is not explicitly demonstrated in the scenario. Choice C: Laissez-faire power involves a hands-off approach to leadership, allowing individuals to make their own decisions without much guidance, which is not applicable in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
A patient wants to reduce health care costs by being a model for making wise decisions that both promote health and reduce cost. Which statement by the patient would indicate a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because asking for the brand name drug Tylenol instead of the generic acetaminophen would likely increase healthcare costs without providing any additional benefit. Acetaminophen is the active ingredient in Tylenol, so choosing the brand name would be more expensive without improving health outcomes. This decision does not align with the goal of reducing healthcare costs while promoting health. Choice B is correct as looking up information on urinary tract infection prevention shows the patient is proactively seeking knowledge to improve health outcomes. Choice C is correct as getting health measurements at a health fair demonstrates an interest in monitoring health status. Choice D is correct as seeking advice from a pharmacist for allergies is a cost-effective and health-promoting decision.
Question 9 of 9
A group of new graduate nurses is asked to speak to a group of politicians to describe the current state of professional nursing and how best to alleviate the nursing shortage. Which statements accurately portray professional nursing today and tomorrow? (select all that apply)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the current trend in nursing education shows an increasing number of registered nurses (RNs) attaining a bachelor's degree compared to an associate degree or diploma. This shift is supported by research indicating that BSN-prepared nurses have better patient outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because while there is indeed a trend towards more outpatient and home health care, it does not necessarily mean that more RNs practice in these settings than in acute care. Choice C is incorrect as nurse practitioner is the most popular advanced practice specialty, not nurse anesthesia. Choice D is incorrect as it makes a broad and unsubstantiated statement based on ethnicity, which does not accurately represent the trends in nursing education and graduate studies.