ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse has asked the nurse educator if there is any way to predict the severity of a patients anaphylactic reaction. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the severity of an anaphylactic reaction can vary greatly from one episode to another in the same patient. Anaphylactic reactions are unpredictable and can be influenced by various factors such as the amount of allergen exposure, individual immune response, underlying health conditions, and concurrent medications. Therefore, it is not possible to reliably gauge the severity of a patient's anaphylactic reaction even if it has occurred repeatedly in the past. Choice A is incorrect because the onset of symptoms alone is not a reliable predictor of the severity of the reaction. Choice B is incorrect as well because there is no set formula to predict that the reaction will be one-third more severe than the patient's last reaction. Choice D is incorrect because stating that the reaction will generally be slightly less severe than the last reaction is also not accurate or supported by evidence.
Question 2 of 9
A 25-year-old female patient with brain metastases is considering her life expectancy after her most recent meeting with her oncologist. Based on the fact that the patient is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases, what is the nurses most appropriate action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensuring that the patient receives adequate palliative care. Palliative care focuses on improving the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses, including managing symptoms and providing emotional support. In this case, since the patient is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases, palliative care would be most appropriate to help alleviate any pain or discomfort she may be experiencing and provide holistic support for her and her family. A: Promoting the patient's functional status and ADLs may not be the priority if the patient's prognosis is terminal and she is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases. C: Ensuring that the family does not tell the patient her condition is terminal goes against ethical principles of honesty and transparency in healthcare. D: Promoting adherence to the prescribed medication regimen may not be relevant if the patient is not receiving active treatment for her brain metastases.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is planning care for a group of patients.Which task will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel (NAP)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Administering an enema Rationale: Administering an enema is a task that can be safely delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP) as it is within their scope of practice and does not require the specialized knowledge and skills of a registered nurse. NAP can be trained to perform enema administration safely and effectively, under the supervision of a nurse. This task involves following a specific procedure and does not require clinical judgment or decision-making. Summary of other choices: A: Performing the first postoperative pouch change - This task involves wound care and assessment, which require the expertise of a registered nurse. B: Maintaining a nasogastric tube - This task involves ongoing assessment, monitoring for complications, and adjustments, which are responsibilities of a registered nurse. D: Digitally removing stool - This task involves invasive procedures and assessment, which are beyond the scope of practice for nursing assistive personnel.
Question 4 of 9
In determining malnourishment in a patient, which assessment finding is consistent with this disorder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Malnourishment often leads to iron deficiency anemia, causing spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia). Step 2: Koilonychia is a classic sign of chronic malnutrition and iron deficiency. Step 3: Moist lips (A) and pink conjunctivae (B) are not specific to malnourishment. Step 4: Not easily plucked hair (D) is more related to hair health rather than malnutrition.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is performing an initial assessment of an older adult resident who has just relocated to the long-term care facility. During the nurses interview with the patient, she admits that she drinks around 20 ounces of vodka every evening. What types of cancer does this put her at risk for? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Esophageal cancer. Alcohol consumption is a known risk factor for developing esophageal cancer. Ethanol, a component of alcohol, can damage the cells lining the esophagus and lead to the development of cancer over time. Incorrect choices: A: Malignant melanoma - Alcohol consumption is not directly linked to the development of malignant melanoma, a type of skin cancer. B: Brain cancer - There is no strong evidence linking alcohol consumption to an increased risk of brain cancer. C: Breast cancer - While excessive alcohol consumption is a risk factor for breast cancer, the primary association is with esophageal cancer in this case. E: Liver cancer - While alcohol abuse can lead to liver damage and increase the risk of liver cancer, the question specifies the types of cancer the patient is at risk for due to alcohol consumption, not the general risks associated with alcohol abuse.
Question 6 of 9
A 55-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining of erectile dysfunction. The patient has a history of diabetes. The physician orders tadalafil (Cialis) to be taken 1 hour before sexual intercourse. The nurse reviews the patients history prior to instructing the patient on the use of this medication. What disorder will contraindicate the use of tadalafil (Cialis)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Retinopathy. Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients with retinopathy due to the potential risk of worsening vision problems. Retinopathy is a serious eye condition commonly associated with diabetes, and using tadalafil can lead to further complications in the eyes. It is crucial for patients with retinopathy to avoid medications that can exacerbate their eye condition. Incorrect choices: A: Cataracts - Cataracts do not contraindicate the use of tadalafil. Tadalafil does not have a direct negative impact on cataracts. C: Hypotension - Hypotension is not a contraindication for tadalafil use. In fact, tadalafil can cause a drop in blood pressure, so it should be used with caution in patients with hypotension. D: Diabetic nephropathy - Diabetic nephropathy is not a direct contraindication for tadalafil use. Tadalafil is generally
Question 7 of 9
A patient has tested HIV-positive and has now discovered that she is pregnant. Which statement indicates that she understands the risks of this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it shows an understanding that being HIV-positive does not guarantee transmission to the baby. The statement acknowledges the possibility of the baby not being affected, which demonstrates awareness of the varying outcomes. Choice A is incorrect as it assumes abortion is the only option. Choice C is incorrect as it makes an extreme and inaccurate claim. Choice D is incorrect as pregnancy does not decrease the chance of developing AIDS.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the physicians notes from the patient who has just left the clinic. The nurse learns that the physician suspects a malignant breast tumor. On palpation, the mass most likely had what characteristic?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mobility. A malignant breast tumor typically lacks mobility due to its fixed attachment to surrounding tissues. This characteristic is concerning for malignancy as it suggests invasive growth. Incorrect answers: A: Nontenderness - Tenderness does not reliably indicate malignancy or benignancy. B: A size of 5 mm - Tumor size alone does not determine malignancy. C: Softness and a regular shape - Malignant tumors are often firm and irregular in shape.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse providing prenatal care to a pregnant woman is addressing measures to reduce her postpartum risk of cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse. What action should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, performance of pelvic muscle exercises. Pelvic muscle exercises, also known as Kegel exercises, help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles which support the bladder, uterus, and bowel. By strengthening these muscles, the risk of developing cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse postpartum is reduced. It is a proactive approach to prevent these conditions. Choice A, maintenance of good perineal hygiene, is important for preventing infections but does not specifically address the risk of pelvic organ prolapse. Choice B, prevention of constipation, is also important but does not directly target the muscle weakness that contributes to prolapse. Choice C, increased fluid intake for 2 weeks postpartum, is not as effective in preventing prolapse as pelvic muscle exercises. In summary, pelvic muscle exercises are the most appropriate recommendation as they directly address strengthening the muscles that support the pelvic organs, reducing the risk of prolapse postpartum.