ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse has asked the nurse educator if there is any way to predict the severity of a patients anaphylactic reaction. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the severity of an anaphylactic reaction can vary greatly from one episode to another in the same patient. Anaphylactic reactions are unpredictable and can be influenced by various factors such as the amount of allergen exposure, individual immune response, underlying health conditions, and concurrent medications. Therefore, it is not possible to reliably gauge the severity of a patient's anaphylactic reaction even if it has occurred repeatedly in the past. Choice A is incorrect because the onset of symptoms alone is not a reliable predictor of the severity of the reaction. Choice B is incorrect as well because there is no set formula to predict that the reaction will be one-third more severe than the patient's last reaction. Choice D is incorrect because stating that the reaction will generally be slightly less severe than the last reaction is also not accurate or supported by evidence.
Question 2 of 9
The labor and birth nurse is reviewing the risk factors for placenta previa with a group of nursing students. The nurse determines that the students understood the discussion when they identify which patient being at the highest risk for developing a placenta previa?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because African-American ethnicity and previous cesarean birth are established risk factors for placenta previa due to the potential for scarring and abnormal placental implantation. Male fetus does not influence the risk. Asian-American ethnicity and previous preterm birth are not significant risk factors. European-American ethnicity and previous spontaneous abortion are also not associated with an increased risk of placenta previa.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient will the nurse seefirst?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should prioritize the patient who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) infusing with the same tubing for 26 hours. This patient needs to be seen first to monitor for any potential complications or issues related to TPN administration. Choice A can be ruled out because 50 hours is longer than 26 hours. Choices C and D involve enteral feeding, which is important but generally less critical than TPN. Additionally, choice D has a shorter duration than choice B. Therefore, choice B is the most time-sensitive and critical patient to assess first.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's symptoms of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain are classic signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating a significant increase in blood pressure and potential progression to eclampsia (seizures). Immediate medical intervention is crucial to prevent complications. A: Gastrointestinal upset does not explain the combination of symptoms presented. B: Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia but does not cause these specific symptoms. C: Anxiety does not typically present with the specific physical symptoms mentioned.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse obtained a telephone order from a primarycare provider for a patient in pain. Which chart entry should the nurse document?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it includes all necessary components for a complete and accurate chart entry. The nurse documents the date and time of the order, the medication prescribed (Morphine, 2 mg, IV every 4 hours), the indication for use (incisional pain), the intended recipient (Dr. Day), the nurse's name (J. Winds), and confirmation of the read-back procedure. This entry ensures clarity, accountability, and proper communication among healthcare team members. Choice A is incorrect because it misses the recipient of the order (Dr. Day) and only includes the nurse's name in the read-back. Choice B is incorrect because it lacks the recipient of the order and the confirmation of the read-back procedure with the primary care provider. Choice D is incorrect because it does not specify the primary care provider who gave the order and misses the read-back confirmation with the provider.
Question 6 of 9
A 31-year-old patient has returned to the post-surgical unit following a hysterectomy. The patients care plan addresses the risk of hemorrhage. How should the nurse best monitor the patients postoperative blood loss?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Count and inspect each perineal pad that the patient uses. This method directly measures postoperative blood loss and allows for accurate monitoring. It provides quantitative data to assess the severity of hemorrhage. A: Having the patient void and have bowel movements using a commode rather than toilet does not directly measure blood loss and may not provide accurate monitoring. C: Swabbing the patient's perineum for the presence of blood is not as accurate as directly counting and inspecting perineal pads. D: Leaving the patient's perineum open to air does not provide a method for quantifying blood loss and may not be as reliable as inspecting perineal pads.
Question 7 of 9
An older adult with a recent history of mixed hearing loss has been diagnosed with a cholesteatoma. What should this patient be taught about this diagnosis? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cholesteatomas are often the result of chronic otitis media. Chronic otitis media can lead to the formation of cholesteatomas, which are noncancerous but can cause complications if left untreated. Cholesteatomas do not resolve spontaneously (A), are not the result of metastasis (B), do not typically cause intractable neuropathic pain (D), and usually require surgical removal to prevent complications (E). Therefore, educating the patient about the association between chronic otitis media and cholesteatoma is essential for understanding the diagnosis and potential treatment options.
Question 8 of 9
A patient has just arrived to the floor after an enucleation procedure following a workplace accident in which his left eye was irreparably damaged. Which of the following should the nurse prioritize during the patients immediate postoperative recovery?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessing and addressing the patient's emotional needs. This should be prioritized because the patient has undergone a traumatic experience losing their eye due to a workplace accident. Emotions such as fear, anxiety, and grief are common postoperatively. Addressing these emotional needs is crucial for the patient's overall well-being and recovery. Options A, B, and D are important aspects of care but not the priority in this situation. Teaching about eye prostheses, depth perception, and medication regimen can be addressed once the patient's emotional needs are stabilized.
Question 9 of 9
In determining malnourishment in a patient, which assessment finding is consistent with this disorder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Malnourishment often leads to iron deficiency anemia, causing spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia). Step 2: Koilonychia is a classic sign of chronic malnutrition and iron deficiency. Step 3: Moist lips (A) and pink conjunctivae (B) are not specific to malnourishment. Step 4: Not easily plucked hair (D) is more related to hair health rather than malnutrition.