Correct Answer:

Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems. Rationale: After setting the agenda, the nurse should proceed by asking about the patient's chief concerns or problems to focus the interview on the patient's needs. This step helps in gathering important information and establishing rapport. Introductions are usually done at the beginning of the interview, so it is not the next step. Explaining that the interview will be over in a few minutes can create anxiety and hinder open communication. Telling the patient about administering medications in 1 hour is not relevant at this point in the interview.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because mastitis typically presents with swollen, firm, and hard breasts due to inflammation and infection of the breast tissue. This occurs as a result of milk stasis and bacterial infection. Option A is incorrect because a crack in the nipple or areola can be indicative of nipple trauma or infection, not necessarily mastitis. Option B is incorrect because multiple lumps within the breast tissue may suggest fibrocystic changes or breast cancer, but not specifically mastitis. Option D is incorrect because enlargement of the axillary lymph nodes is more commonly seen in breast cancer, not mastitis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is associated with stages 1 and 2 hypertension. Smoking is a major risk factor for developing hypertension, especially stages 1 and 2. Nicotine in cigarettes can lead to vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, and overall elevated blood pressure. This information is crucial for patients to understand the direct impact of smoking on their blood pressure levels. Choice B is incorrect because smoking does indeed affect BP regulation by causing vasoconstriction and elevated heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as smoking actually causes vasoconstriction rather than vasodilation. Choice D is incorrect because smoking does lead to sustained elevation of blood pressure, especially in the long term.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: In HHNS, there is severe hyperglycemia leading to osmotic diuresis. Step 2: Osmotic diuresis causes loss of potassium in urine, leading to hypokalemia. Step 3: Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in HHNS due to excessive urinary loss of potassium. Step 4: Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a below-normal serum potassium level in a client with HHNS. Summary: A: Elevated serum acetone level is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS. B: Serum alkalosis is not typically associated with HHNS. C: Serum ketone bodies are elevated in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: fluid volume deficit related to depletion of intravascular volume. Peritonitis causes inflammation of the peritoneum, leading to fluid shifting into the peritoneal cavity, causing hypovolemia. Hypotension and tachycardia are signs of decreased intravascular volume. Rigid abdominal muscles and rebound tenderness indicate peritoneal irritation. Choice B is incorrect because elevated ammonia levels are not associated with the client's symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because increased peristalsis does not explain the client's hypotension and tachycardia. Choice D is incorrect because malabsorption does not align with the client's acute presentation of severe abdominal pain and peritonitis.