ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse do next?
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems. Rationale: After setting the agenda, the nurse should proceed by asking about the patient's chief concerns or problems to gather relevant information and focus the interview on the patient's needs. This step helps establish rapport and ensures the patient is actively involved in the conversation. Incorrect Choices: A: Beginning with introductions is important, but after setting the agenda, it is more crucial to address the patient's concerns. C: Explaining that the interview will be over in a few minutes is not appropriate as it may rush the patient and hinder open communication. D: Telling the patient about administering medications in 1 hour is not relevant at this stage and does not address the patient's immediate needs.
Question 2 of 9
To return a patient with hyponatremia to normal sodium levels, it is safer to restrict fluid intake than to administer sodium:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Hyponatremia is an electrolyte imbalance characterized by low sodium levels in the blood. Step 2: Restricting fluid intake helps prevent further dilution of sodium in the blood, aiding in correcting hyponatremia. Step 3: Administering sodium can lead to rapid correction, risking osmotic demyelination syndrome. Step 4: Choice C is correct as it aligns with the goal of managing hyponatremia by preventing fluid overload symptoms. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary concern of correcting low sodium levels in hyponatremia.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. The nurse wrote a diagnosis related to enhancing the patient's urinary elimination abilities through self-catheterization, which focuses on promoting the patient's health and well-being. The Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination diagnosis indicates the patient's motivation and readiness to improve their urinary elimination abilities, aligning with the concept of health promotion. This type of diagnosis acknowledges the patient's potential for growth and improvement in their health status. Incorrect choices: A: Risk - This choice would be more appropriate if the diagnosis focused on potential complications or adverse events related to the patient's urinary elimination abilities. B: Problem focused - This choice would be suitable if the diagnosis identified an existing issue or problem with the patient's urinary elimination abilities that needed to be addressed. D: Collaborative problem - This choice would be relevant if the diagnosis required collaboration between healthcare providers to manage the patient's urinary elimination abilities effectively.
Question 4 of 9
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50. 2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland. 3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment. 4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer. 5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. 6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. The nurse wrote a diagnosis of Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination, which indicates the patient's willingness to improve their urinary elimination abilities. Health promotion diagnoses focus on improving the client's well-being and enhancing their health potential. In this scenario, the patient's desire to learn self-catheterization aligns with health promotion as it involves empowering the patient to take an active role in their care. Choice A (Risk) is incorrect because the patient is not currently at risk for urinary elimination issues, but rather seeking to enhance their abilities. Choice B (Problem focused) is incorrect as the diagnosis is not about addressing a current problem but rather focusing on potential improvement. Choice D (Collaborative problem) is incorrect as it does not involve collaboration between healthcare providers but rather focuses on the patient's readiness and willingness to enhance their own health outcomes.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff finding would confirm that a female client has mastitis? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because mastitis typically presents with swollen, firm, and hard breasts due to inflammation and infection of the breast tissue. This occurs as a result of milk stasis and bacterial infection. Option A is incorrect because a crack in the nipple or areola can be indicative of nipple trauma or infection, not necessarily mastitis. Option B is incorrect because multiple lumps within the breast tissue may suggest fibrocystic changes or breast cancer, but not specifically mastitis. Option D is incorrect because enlargement of the axillary lymph nodes is more commonly seen in breast cancer, not mastitis.
Question 7 of 9
A client with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and a history of two myocardial infarctions and coronary artery disease is to receive levothyroxine (Synthroid). Because of the client’s cardiac history, the nurse would expect that the client’s initial dose for the thyroid replacement would be which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 25 g/day, initially. In this scenario, the client with Hashimoto's thyroiditis and a history of cardiac issues requires a cautious approach due to the risk of exacerbating cardiac conditions with thyroid hormone replacement. Starting with a low dose of 25 µg/day allows for careful monitoring of the client's response and prevents potential adverse effects on the cardiovascular system. Summary: B: Delayed until after thyroid surgery - Not appropriate as the client requires thyroid replacement therapy for Hashimoto's thyroiditis. C: 100 µg/day, initially - Too high of an initial dose and may lead to adverse cardiovascular effects. D: Initiated before thyroid surgery - Not relevant to the client's situation as there is no indication for thyroid surgery mentioned in the question.
Question 8 of 9
A client asks the nurse what PSA is. The nurse should reply that is stands for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced by the prostate gland. It is primarily used to screen for prostate cancer by measuring the levels of PSA in the blood. PSA levels can help detect prostate cancer early. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes PSA and its primary use. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Protein serum antigen is not a commonly known term in healthcare. There is no specific antigen called "protein serum antigen" used to determine protein levels. C: Pneumococcal strep antigen is a bacterial antigen that causes pneumonia, not related to PSA used in prostate cancer screening. D: Papanicolua-specific antigen is not a recognized term. The Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) is used for cervical cancer screening, not a specific antigen like PSA.
Question 9 of 9
A patient visiting with family members in the waiting area tells the nurse “I don’t feel good, especially in the stomach.” What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to return to the room, so the nurse can inspect the abdomen. Rationale: 1. Patient safety: By examining the patient's abdomen, the nurse can assess for any signs of distress or potential medical issues. 2. Patient-centered care: It is essential to prioritize the patient's well-being by addressing their concerns promptly and appropriately. 3. Professional responsibility: Nurses are trained to assess and evaluate patient symptoms to provide necessary care and support. Summary: A: Requesting the family to leave does not address the patient's symptoms and may disrupt the patient's support system. C: Asking about bowel movements and offering food may not be appropriate if the patient is experiencing stomach discomfort. D: Offering food without proper assessment may worsen the patient's condition and is not recommended before a proper evaluation.