ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse do next?
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems. Rationale: After setting the agenda, the nurse should proceed by asking about the patient's chief concerns or problems to gather relevant information and focus the interview on the patient's needs. This step helps establish rapport and ensures the patient is actively involved in the conversation. Incorrect Choices: A: Beginning with introductions is important, but after setting the agenda, it is more crucial to address the patient's concerns. C: Explaining that the interview will be over in a few minutes is not appropriate as it may rush the patient and hinder open communication. D: Telling the patient about administering medications in 1 hour is not relevant at this stage and does not address the patient's immediate needs.
Question 2 of 9
Inhalation of carbogen for short period is recommended:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Carbogen is a gas mixture of carbon dioxide and oxygen. Inhaling carbogen can stimulate respiration due to increased oxygen levels and carbon dioxide acting as a respiratory stimulant. It can also dilate blood vessels, enhancing oxygen delivery to tissues. Additionally, carbogen can help dislodge blood clots by improving blood flow and oxygenation. Therefore, all the choices (A, B, and C) are correct as inhaling carbogen can have multiple beneficial effects on respiration, blood vessels, and blood clot dislodging.
Question 3 of 9
A client was brought to the school clinic wuth severe, constant, localized abdominal pain. Abdominal muscles are rigid, and rebound tenderness is present. Peritonitis is suspected. The client is hypotensive and tachycardic. The nursing diagnosis most appropriate to the client’s signs/symptoms is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: fluid volume deficit related to depletion of intravascular volume. Peritonitis causes inflammation of the peritoneum, leading to fluid shifting into the peritoneal cavity, causing hypovolemia. Hypotension and tachycardia are signs of decreased intravascular volume. Rigid abdominal muscles and rebound tenderness indicate peritoneal irritation. Choice B is incorrect because elevated ammonia levels are not associated with the client's symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because increased peristalsis does not explain the client's hypotension and tachycardia. Choice D is incorrect because malabsorption does not align with the client's acute presentation of severe abdominal pain and peritonitis.
Question 4 of 9
A client with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and a history of two myocardial infarctions and coronary artery disease is to receive levothyroxine (Synthroid). Because of the client’s cardiac history, the nurse would expect that the client’s initial dose for the thyroid replacement would be which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 25 g/day, initially. In this scenario, the client with Hashimoto's thyroiditis and a history of cardiac issues requires a cautious approach due to the risk of exacerbating cardiac conditions with thyroid hormone replacement. Starting with a low dose of 25 µg/day allows for careful monitoring of the client's response and prevents potential adverse effects on the cardiovascular system. Summary: B: Delayed until after thyroid surgery - Not appropriate as the client requires thyroid replacement therapy for Hashimoto's thyroiditis. C: 100 µg/day, initially - Too high of an initial dose and may lead to adverse cardiovascular effects. D: Initiated before thyroid surgery - Not relevant to the client's situation as there is no indication for thyroid surgery mentioned in the question.
Question 5 of 9
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50. 2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland. 3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment. 4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer. 5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. 6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
Question 6 of 9
Through which of the following does lymph return to the blood?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Subclavian veins. Lymph returns to the blood through the subclavian veins because they receive lymphatic drainage from the thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct. Lymphatic vessels merge into lymphatic ducts, which empty into the subclavian veins, allowing lymph to re-enter the bloodstream. The carotid arteries (A) carry oxygen-rich blood to the brain, the aorta (C) is the main artery of the body carrying oxygenated blood from the heart, and the inferior vena cava (B) returns deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the heart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not involved in the return of lymph to the blood.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. This type of diagnosis focuses on improving the client's well-being and maximizing their health potential. By adding Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination to the care plan, the nurse acknowledges the patient's willingness to learn self-catheterization, which aligns with health promotion. Other choices are incorrect because: A (Risk) implies potential harm, B (Problem focused) focuses on current issues, and D (Collaborative problem) involves multiple healthcare providers working together on a specific problem.
Question 8 of 9
At a public health fair, a nurse discusses the dangers of sun exposure. Prolonged sun exposure has been blamed for which form of cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Malignant melanoma, basal cell epithelioma, and squamous cell carcinoma are all types of skin cancer associated with prolonged sun exposure. Melanoma is the most dangerous form, while basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas are more common but less aggressive. Sun exposure can lead to DNA damage in skin cells, increasing the risk of developing these types of cancers. Therefore, all three choices are correct as they are all linked to sun exposure. The other choices are incorrect because each type of skin cancer mentioned can be caused by prolonged sun exposure, so selecting any one of them individually would not fully capture the scope of the risks associated with sun exposure.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse do next?
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems. Rationale: After setting the agenda, the nurse should proceed by asking about the patient's chief concerns or problems to focus the interview on the patient's needs. This step helps in gathering important information and establishing rapport. Introductions are usually done at the beginning of the interview, so it is not the next step. Explaining that the interview will be over in a few minutes can create anxiety and hinder open communication. Telling the patient about administering medications in 1 hour is not relevant at this point in the interview.