A nurse explains to a patient undergoing diagnostic testing that which brain imaging technique measures brain structure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Computed tomography (CT). CT scans use X-ray technology to create detailed images of brain structures. This technique is ideal for measuring brain structure due to its ability to provide clear and precise images of the brain's anatomy. Explanation: - CT scans are commonly used to assess brain structures such as the size, shape, and density of tissues. - The high-resolution images produced by CT scans allow healthcare professionals to identify abnormalities, tumors, hemorrhages, and other structural issues in the brain. - Unlike functional brain imaging techniques like PET, SPECT, and BEAM, which focus on brain activity, CT is specifically designed for visualizing brain structure. Summary of other choices: B: PET measures brain activity by detecting radioactive tracers. C: BEAM records brain electrical activity using electrodes. D: SPECT images brain blood flow and activity using radioactive tracers.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute, influencing blood pressure. 2. Systemic vascular resistance refers to the resistance to blood flow in the blood vessels, affecting blood pressure regulation. 3. Both parameters work together to regulate arterial blood pressure by determining the amount of blood pumped by the heart and the resistance to blood flow in the vessels. Summary: - Choice A is correct as both cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance play key roles in regulating arterial blood pressure. - Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly impact blood pressure regulation through the parameters mentioned.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To dissolve the clot in the coronary artery. Thrombolytic drugs are used to break down blood clots in the coronary arteries, restoring blood flow to the heart muscle during an acute myocardial infarction. This helps to prevent further damage to the heart tissue and reduce the risk of complications. Choice A is incorrect because the primary goal of thrombolytic therapy is not to relieve chest pain but to restore blood flow. Choice B is incorrect as thrombolytic drugs do not prevent further clot formation but rather address existing clots. Choice D is incorrect because thrombolytic drugs are not used to control bleeding but to dissolve clots.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Numbness and tingling of extremities. This is a potential adverse effect of antitubercular drugs known as peripheral neuropathy. Patients should report this to the prescriber immediately as it may indicate a serious side effect that requires prompt intervention to prevent further nerve damage. A: Gastrointestinal upset is a common side effect of antitubercular drugs but is usually not considered serious enough to warrant immediate reporting. B: Headache and nervousness are not typically associated with antitubercular drugs. While they may occur as side effects, they are not the most concerning adverse effects. C: Reddish-orange urine and stool are common side effects of rifampin, an antitubercular drug, and are not typically harmful. This side effect is usually harmless and does not require immediate reporting.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because stimulation of liver microsomal enzymes can increase drug metabolism, leading to decreased drug levels in the body and requiring a dose increase to maintain therapeutic effect. This is known as enzyme induction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because liver enzyme stimulation does not typically result in a decreased drug dose, prolonged drug action, or intensified unwanted drug reactions. It is crucial to understand how enzyme induction affects drug metabolism to optimize drug therapy.