ATI RN
Human Reproductive System pdf NCERT Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse expects to find which manifestations in the male patient who has both Chlamydia and gonorrhea?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because painful urination and purulent urethral discharge are classic manifestations of both Chlamydia and gonorrhea in male patients. Painful urination, known as dysuria, is a common symptom of these sexually transmitted infections due to inflammation of the urethra. Purulent urethral discharge is also typical and results from the infection of the urethral mucosa. Option B is incorrect as a single, firm, painless open sore on the shaft of the penis is a classic presentation of syphilis, not Chlamydia or gonorrhea. Option C is incorrect as red superficial vesicles on the shaft of the penis are characteristic of genital herpes. Option D is incorrect as a single or a cluster of wartlike growth in the anal-rectal area is typical of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV).
Question 2 of 5
The nurse will plan to teach a 51-yr-old man who is scheduled for an annual physical examination about a(n)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: normal decreases in testosterone level. At the age of 51, it is important to educate the man about the normal age-related decline in testosterone levels, which can affect various aspects of health. This information will help manage expectations and address potential symptoms. Option A is incorrect as testicular cancer risk typically decreases with age. Option B may be a concern but is not the primary focus of education for a routine physical exam. Option D (PSA testing) is more relevant for prostate health, which is not the main focus of education for a 51-year-old man's annual physical exam.
Question 3 of 5
The development strategy where the young develop within their mother's uterus and obtain nourishment from the mother via placenta is best described as
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Viviparity. Viviparity refers to the development strategy where young develop within the mother's uterus and receive nourishment through the placenta. This is the best description for the scenario provided. A: Oviparity involves laying eggs externally. C: Semelparity is a reproductive strategy where an organism reproduces only once in its lifetime. D: Ovoviviparity is a combination of oviparity and viviparity, where eggs are retained within the mother's body until they hatch.
Question 4 of 5
A newborn infant obtains maternal antibodies from the mother's
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: colostrum. Colostrum is the first milk produced by the mother after giving birth. It is rich in antibodies, providing passive immunity to the newborn. This helps protect the infant from infections until its own immune system fully develops. A: laguno - Not a substance related to maternal antibodies. C: rubell - Incorrect spelling and not relevant to maternal antibodies. D: placent - While the placenta does provide nutrients and oxygen to the fetus, it is not the source of maternal antibodies transferred to the newborn.
Question 5 of 5
Regarding gross anatomy of male reproductive system
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the ductus deferens penetrates the prostate gland to connect with the prostatic urethra, forming the ejaculatory duct. This allows for the transport of sperm from the epididymis to the urethra during ejaculation. A: Dartos muscle is responsible for wrinkling the scrotal skin but not raising and lowering the testes. C: The anterior lobe of the prostate gland mainly consists of fibromuscular tissue, not glandular tissue. D: Buck's fascia surrounds the corpora cavernosa and the corpus spongiosum of the penis, not the body of the penis itself.