ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse exchanges information with the oncomingnurse about a patient’s care. Which action did the nurse complete?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A verbal report. This is because exchanging information verbally between nurses allows for real-time communication, ensuring important details are accurately conveyed. Electronic record entry (B) involves documenting information in the patient's record but does not involve direct communication. Referral (C) refers to transferring the patient's care to another healthcare provider. Acuity rating (D) is a tool used to determine the severity of a patient's condition and does not involve exchanging information between nurses.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is providing discharge education to an adult patient who will begin a regimen of ocular medications for the treatment of glaucoma. How can the nurse best determine if the patient is able to self-administer these medications safely and effectively?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. By asking the patient to demonstrate the instillation of medications, the nurse can directly assess the patient's ability to self-administer the medications safely and effectively. This method allows for a practical demonstration of skills, which is more reliable than relying solely on verbal descriptions or past experiences. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because assessing for previous inability, describing the method, or evaluating functional status may not directly demonstrate the patient's competency in self-administering ocular medications.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is planning discharge education for a patient who underwent a cervical diskectomy. What strategies would the nurse assess that would aid in planning discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Care of the cervical collar Rationale: 1. Care of the cervical collar is essential post-cervical diskectomy to ensure proper immobilization and support. 2. Proper care prevents complications and promotes healing. 3. It is a crucial aspect of discharge education to prevent injury and promote recovery. Summary of other choices: B: Technique for performing neck ROM exercises - Important for rehabilitation but not directly related to discharge education post-cervical diskectomy. C: Home assessment of ABGs - Irrelevant to post-cervical diskectomy discharge education. D: Techniques for restoring nerve function - Important for recovery but not a primary focus of discharge education.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is preparing a patient for a magneticresonance imaging (MRI) scan. Which nursing action ismostimportant?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Removing all of the patient’s metallic jewelry. Rationale: 1. Safety: Metallic objects can be attracted by the MRI magnet, causing harm to the patient and disrupting the imaging process. 2. Artifact Prevention: Metallic objects can produce artifacts on the MRI images, affecting the diagnostic quality. 3. Patient Comfort: Removing jewelry ensures the patient's comfort during the scan, avoiding discomfort or injury. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Not eating or drinking before an MRI is important, but it is not the most crucial action compared to patient safety and image quality. B: Colon cleansing may be necessary for certain types of MRI scans, but it is not universally required and is not the most important action. C: Pain medication may be important for patient comfort, but it is not essential for the actual MRI procedure and does not impact safety or image quality.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is providing health education to a patient newly diagnosed with glaucoma. The nurse teaches the patient that this disease has a familial tendency. The nurse should encourage the patients immediate family members to undergo clinical examinations how often?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: At least once every 2 years. Glaucoma has a familial tendency, meaning it can run in families. Regular eye exams are crucial for early detection and treatment. Having family members undergo clinical examinations every 2 years allows for timely identification of any potential signs of glaucoma. Monthly exams (A) would be too frequent and unnecessary. Exams every 5 years (C) or 10 years (D) are too infrequent and may miss early signs of the disease. Regular biennial exams strike a balance between early detection and practicality.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with an inoperable brain tumor has been told that he has a short life expectancy. On what aspects of assessment and care should the home health nurse focus? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain control. This is the main focus because the patient's quality of life should be prioritized, and managing pain is crucial for comfort and well-being in end-of-life care. Pain can significantly impact the patient's physical and emotional state. The other choices are incorrect because managing treatment complications (B) and administering treatments (E) may not be relevant if the tumor is inoperable and the patient has a short life expectancy. Interpretation of diagnostic tests (C) may not be necessary at this stage, and assistance with self-care (D) may not be the main priority compared to pain control.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is reviewing urinary laboratory results.Which finding will cause the nurse to follow up?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a protein level of 2 mg/100 mL in urine indicates proteinuria, which can be a sign of kidney dysfunction or other underlying health issues. The nurse should follow up to assess further for possible kidney disease or other conditions. Choice B is not a cause for concern as a urine output of 80 mL/hr is within the normal range. Choice C indicates concentrated urine, which may be due to dehydration but does not necessarily require immediate follow-up. Choice D is within the normal range for urine pH and does not typically warrant immediate follow-up.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with metastatic cancer has developed trigeminal neuralgia and is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for pain relief. What principle applies to the administration of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient should be monitored for bone marrow depression. Carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased production of blood cells. Monitoring blood counts is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. Choice A is incorrect as Tegretol can have serious adverse effects, including bone marrow depression. Choice C is incorrect as the main side effects of carbamazepine are related to the central nervous system, not renal dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as medications like carbamazepine should be started at a low dose and gradually titrated up to minimize side effects.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who just underwentan intravenous pyelography that revealed a renal calculus obstructing the left ureter. What is the nurse’sfirstpriorityin caring for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the patient for fever, rash, and difficulty breathing. The rationale is as follows: 1. Renal calculus obstruction can lead to complications such as infection, so monitoring for fever is crucial. 2. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the procedure. 3. Difficulty breathing may signal a severe reaction or complications. Summary: A: Turning the patient on the right side does not directly address the urgent need to monitor for potential complications. B: While fluid intake is important, it is not the immediate priority when the patient is at risk of developing complications. D: Administering narcotic medications may be necessary for pain relief but does not address the potential emergent issues related to the obstruction.