ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse exchanges information with the oncomingnurse about a patient’s care. Which action did the nurse complete?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A verbal report. This is because exchanging information verbally between nurses allows for real-time communication, ensuring important details are accurately conveyed. Electronic record entry (B) involves documenting information in the patient's record but does not involve direct communication. Referral (C) refers to transferring the patient's care to another healthcare provider. Acuity rating (D) is a tool used to determine the severity of a patient's condition and does not involve exchanging information between nurses.
Question 2 of 9
Rh incompatibility can occur if the patient is Rh-negative and the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. If fetal blood enters the mother's circulation during pregnancy or childbirth, the mother's immune system can produce antibodies against Rh-positive red blood cells, leading to potential harm to future pregnancies. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Rh incompatibility does not occur when the fetus is Rh-negative, the father is Rh-positive, or both the father and fetus are Rh-negative.
Question 3 of 9
A gerontologic nurse is advocating for diagnostic testing of an 81-year-old patient who is experiencing personality changes. The nurse is aware of what factor that is known to affect the diagnosis and treatment of brain tumors in older adults?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the cognitive effects of aging can mimic symptoms of brain tumors in older adults, leading to misdiagnosis or delayed diagnosis. Aging can also affect the presentation, progression, and treatment outcomes of brain tumors. Option B is incorrect as brain tumors in older adults can indeed produce focal effects. Option C is incorrect as not all older adults have numerous benign brain tumors, and this is not a factor affecting the diagnosis and treatment of brain tumors in this case. Option D is incorrect as age alone does not preclude treatment for brain tumors.
Question 4 of 9
Which form of heart disease in women of childbearing years usually has a benign effect on pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral valve prolapse. This condition is usually benign during pregnancy because the heart's workload increases, and the mitral valve is a one-way valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium. Mitral valve prolapse typically does not significantly affect the heart's ability to pump blood efficiently during pregnancy. Rationale: 1. Cardiomyopathy (A) can worsen during pregnancy, leading to complications for both the mother and the fetus. 2. Rheumatic heart disease (C) can cause valve damage, increasing the risk of complications during pregnancy. 3. Congenital heart disease (D) varies in severity and can pose risks during pregnancy, depending on the specific condition. Summary: Mitral valve prolapse is the correct answer as it is less likely to cause significant issues during pregnancy compared to the other options provided.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is providing health education to a patient newly diagnosed with glaucoma. The nurse teaches the patient that this disease has a familial tendency. The nurse should encourage the patients immediate family members to undergo clinical examinations how often?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: At least once every 2 years. Glaucoma has a familial tendency, meaning it can run in families. Regular eye exams are crucial for early detection and treatment. Having family members undergo clinical examinations every 2 years allows for timely identification of any potential signs of glaucoma. Monthly exams (A) would be too frequent and unnecessary. Exams every 5 years (C) or 10 years (D) are too infrequent and may miss early signs of the disease. Regular biennial exams strike a balance between early detection and practicality.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is admitting a 52-year-old father of four into hospice care. The patient has a diagnosis of Parkinsons disease, which is progressing rapidly. The patient has made clear his preference to receive care at home. What interventions should the nurse prioritize in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Supporting the patients and family's values and choices. In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize respecting the patient's preference to receive care at home and involving the family in decision-making. This approach promotes patient autonomy, dignity, and quality of life. Choice A is incorrect as aggressively fighting the disease process may not align with the patient's wishes for comfort-focused care in hospice. Choice B is incorrect because moving the patient to a long-term care facility goes against the patient's preference to receive care at home. Choice C is not the priority as including the children in planning care is important but not as crucial as respecting the patient's wishes directly.
Question 7 of 9
Which types of nurses make the best communicatorswith patients?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Those who develop critical thinking skills. Critical thinking skills enable nurses to assess situations, analyze information, and communicate effectively with patients. By using critical thinking, nurses can tailor their communication style to each patient's needs, leading to better understanding and rapport. A: Learning effective psychomotor skills is important but does not directly correlate with being a good communicator. C: Liking different kinds of people is beneficial for interpersonal relationships, but it does not necessarily make one a better communicator. D: Maintaining perceptual biases hinders effective communication as it can lead to misunderstandings and barriers in the communication process.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is admitting a patient to the unit who is scheduled to have an ossiculoplasty. What postoperative assessment will best determine whether the procedure has been successful?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Audiometry. Postoperative audiometry is the most appropriate assessment to determine the success of ossiculoplasty, as it evaluates the patient's hearing function and any improvements made by the surgery. Otoscopy (A) is a visual examination of the ear canal and may not provide comprehensive information on hearing. Balance testing (C) assesses equilibrium and is not directly related to the success of ossiculoplasty. Culture and sensitivity testing (D) of ear discharge is used to identify infections and would not directly indicate the success of the surgery.
Question 9 of 9
During a recent visit to the clinic a woman presents with erythema of the nipple and areola on the right breast. She states this started several weeks ago and she was fearful of what would be found. The nurse should promptly refer the patient to her primary care provider because the patients signs and symptoms are suggestive of what health problem?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Erythema of nipple/areola in one breast can be a sign of Paget's disease, a rare form of breast cancer. 2. Paget's disease may also present with itching, tingling, or a burning sensation in the affected area. 3. Referring the patient promptly is crucial for early detection and appropriate management. 4. Peau d'orange (A) is a sign of advanced breast cancer, not typically presenting with erythema alone. 5. Nipple inversion (B) may be benign or related to other conditions, not typically presenting with erythema. 6. Acute mastitis (D) presents with breast pain, warmth, swelling, and fever, but not typically with isolated erythema of the nipple/areola.