ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse evaluates the following arterial blood gas values in a client: pH 7.48, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which client condition should the nurse correlate with these results?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anxiety-induced hyperventilation. The arterial blood gas values show a pH of 7.48 (alkalosis) with low PaCO2 (respiratory alkalosis), which is consistent with hyperventilation due to anxiety. HCO3 is within normal range, ruling out metabolic causes. A: Diarrhea and vomiting would lead to metabolic acidosis with low pH and decreased HCO3. C: COPD would typically present with respiratory acidosis (high PaCO2) and normal to high HCO3. D: Diabetic ketoacidosis and emphysema would show metabolic acidosis with low pH and low HCO3.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client with hypokalemia and notes that the client's handgrip strength has diminished since the previous assessment 1 hour ago. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to assess the client's respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth (Choice A). Diminished handgrip strength in a client with hypokalemia could indicate potential respiratory muscle weakness, which can lead to respiratory distress or failure. By assessing the client's respiratory status, the nurse can determine if immediate intervention is needed to support breathing. Choice B is incorrect because measuring the client's pulse and blood pressure may not address the underlying issue of respiratory muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as it delays potential life-saving interventions by simply documenting findings. Choice D is incorrect as calling the healthcare provider should come after addressing the client's immediate respiratory needs.
Question 3 of 9
You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How would you interpret these results?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To interpret the given ABG results: 1. pH <7.35 indicates acidosis. 2. PaCO2 <35 indicates respiratory alkalosis. 3. HCO3 <22 indicates metabolic acidosis. Therefore, the ABG results show metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3) with compensatory respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2). This means the body is trying to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by decreasing PaCO2 through hyperventilation. Option D is correct. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the ABG results and the principles of acid-base balance.
Question 4 of 9
After administering 40 mEq of potassium chloride, a nurse evaluates the clients response. Which manifestations indicate that treatment is improving the clients hypokalemia? (Select all tha do not t apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: U waves present on the electrocardiogram (ECG). U waves are indicative of hypokalemia, and their presence indicates that the potassium chloride treatment is improving the condition. Explanation: 1. A: Strong productive cough - This manifestation is not related to potassium levels and does not indicate improvement in hypokalemia. 2. B: Active bowel sounds - While hypokalemia can cause gastrointestinal issues, active bowel sounds alone do not specifically indicate improvement in potassium levels. 3. C: U waves present on ECG - U waves are a classic ECG finding in hypokalemia. The presence of U waves indicates a positive response to potassium chloride treatment. 4. D: No response provided - Not applicable. In summary, the presence of U waves on the ECG is a key indicator of improvement in hypokalemia, while the other manifestations do not directly relate to potassium levels.
Question 5 of 9
. A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The man's elevated heart rate, anxiety, and low urine output indicate a sympathetic reaction. This reaction stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to decreased urine output. The sympathetic response triggers the release of renin, which activates angiotensin II and aldosterone, causing vasoconstriction and water reabsorption in the kidneys, ultimately reducing urine output. Choice A is incorrect because low urine output is not solely due to urinating before arrival. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication of traumatic brain injury or ADH deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as atrial natriuretic peptide in heart failure typically increases urine output.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL. Which provider order should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage oral fluid intake. When a client has hypercalcemia (serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL), the priority is to increase fluid intake to promote renal calcium excretion. This helps prevent complications such as renal calculi. The first step is to dilute the serum calcium by increasing fluid intake, which can help lower the serum calcium level. Connecting the client to a cardiac monitor (B) is not the priority as hypercalcemia affects the kidneys more than the heart. Assessing urinary output (C) is important but encouraging fluid intake is more immediate. Administering oral calcitonin (Calcimar) (D) is not the first action as it is a medication used for long-term management of hypercalcemia, not the immediate priority.
Question 7 of 9
. One day after a patient is admitted to the medical unit, you note that the patient is oliguric. You notify the acutecare nurse practitioner who orders a fluid challenge of 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. This intervention will achieve which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Help distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function. Rationale: 1. Oliguria is a decrease in urine output. 2. Fluid challenge with normal saline can help determine the cause of oliguria by assessing the response of the kidneys. 3. If the oliguria improves after the fluid challenge, it suggests reduced renal blood flow as the cause. 4. If oliguria persists, it indicates decreased renal function. Summary: A. Fluid challenge does not directly help in distinguishing between hyponatremia and hypernatremia. B. Evaluating pituitary gland function requires specific tests, not just a fluid challenge. D. Treating hypertension-induced oliguria may involve different interventions, not just a fluid challenge.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is assessing clients who have intravenous therapy prescribed. Which assessment finding for a client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) requires immediate attention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because upper extremity swelling could indicate a potential complication such as deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition requiring immediate attention to prevent further complications. Swelling can impede blood flow and lead to clot formation. A: The initial site dressing being 3 days old is concerning for infection but not an immediate threat. B: The PICC being inserted 4 weeks ago may increase infection risk but does not require immediate attention. C: A missing securement device may increase the risk of dislodgement but is not an immediate threat compared to potential vascular compromise indicated by upper extremity swelling.
Question 9 of 9
After teaching a client who was malnourished and is being discharged, a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement indicates the client correctly understood teaching to decrease risk for the development of metabolic acidosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I will drink at least three glasses of milk each day." Milk is a good source of calcium and bicarbonate, which can help buffer excess acids in the body and prevent metabolic acidosis. Calcium also plays a role in maintaining the acid-base balance. Option B is incorrect because while eating well-balanced meals is important for overall health, it does not specifically address the prevention of metabolic acidosis. Option C is irrelevant to the prevention of metabolic acidosis. Option D is incorrect because avoiding salting food does not directly address the underlying issue of metabolic acidosis related to malnutrition.