Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reassess the client's condition. When an expected outcome is not achieved, the nurse must reassess the client's condition to identify the reasons for the lack of success. This step allows the nurse to gather more information, adjust the plan of care if necessary, and determine the most suitable course of action to help the client achieve the desired outcome. Choice A: Terminating the plan of care is premature without reassessing the client's condition and identifying potential barriers to success. Choice B: Modifying the plan of care may be necessary after reassessment but should not be the first step. Choice C: Reassigning care to another nurse does not address the underlying issues affecting the client's response to the intervention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement warrants clarification as donating blood does not put individuals at risk of getting HIV. Blood donation involves a sterile process that ensures safety. Choice A is correct as using condoms can help prevent the transmission of HIV. Choice B is incorrect because modern blood screening techniques have greatly reduced the risk of HIV transmission through blood transfusions. Choice D is also correct as sharing needles is a high-risk behavior for HIV transmission. In summary, only choice C is incorrect as donating blood does not pose a risk of acquiring HIV.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) because it specifically measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy by assessing the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A prolonged PTT indicates that heparin is achieving the desired anticoagulant effect. A: INR (International Normalized Ratio) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. C: PT (Prothrombin Time) is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. D: Bleeding time is not typically used to monitor heparin therapy and is more focused on platelet function rather than coagulation factors.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal failure. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) can lead to hypoxemia and respiratory acidosis, causing decreased perfusion to the kidneys and potentially leading to renal failure. Monitoring for signs of renal failure, such as decreased urine output and elevated creatinine levels, is crucial in managing clients with ARDS. Incorrect choices: A: Chest wall bulging is not a common complication of ARDS. It may be seen in conditions like tension pneumothorax. C: Difficulty swallowing is not a typical complication of ARDS. It may be seen in neurological conditions or esophageal disorders. D: Orthopnea is not a direct complication of ARDS. It is more commonly associated with heart failure or pulmonary edema.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2 L/min. In emphysema, there is impaired gas exchange due to damaged lung tissue, resulting in decreased oxygen levels. Administering too high a flow rate can lead to oxygen toxicity. The standard oxygen therapy for emphysema is 1-2 L/min to maintain oxygen saturation without causing harm. Higher flow rates like 10 L/min (B) and 6 L/min (C) are excessive and can lead to oxygen toxicity. 95 L/min (D) is dangerously high and not suitable for oxygen therapy in emphysema. Therefore, A is the correct choice for safe and effective oxygen administration in emphysema.