A nurse doubts that the physician has prescribed an unusually large dosage of a medication. The nurse ask the senior nurse on duty about the order if it is correct or wrong, the senior nurse tells the nurse that the order is correct. The nurse comply with the order and administer it to the patient. The patient eventually died. Who is liable for this situation.

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Question 1 of 9

A nurse doubts that the physician has prescribed an unusually large dosage of a medication. The nurse ask the senior nurse on duty about the order if it is correct or wrong, the senior nurse tells the nurse that the order is correct. The nurse comply with the order and administer it to the patient. The patient eventually died. Who is liable for this situation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The physician is ultimately responsible for prescribing the correct dosage of medication to the patient. However, the nurse also plays a critical role in ensuring patient safety by questioning any orders that appear to be unusual or incorrect. In this scenario, the nurse had doubts about the unusually large dosage but was reassured by the senior nurse that the order was correct. Both the physician and the nurse failed in their responsibilities, leading to the patient's unfortunate death. The senior nurse also shares liability as they provided incorrect guidance to the nurse administering the medication. Ultimately, the situation was a result of a breakdown in communication and adherence to proper procedures by both the physician and the nurse.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following substances has abnormal values EARLY in the course of multiple myeloma (MM)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the early stages of multiple myeloma (MM), abnormal values are often seen in the levels of immunoglobulins. This is due to the abnormal proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to overproduction of monoclonal immunoglobulins (M proteins). These abnormal immunoglobulins can be detected in blood tests and are a key diagnostic feature of MM. Changes in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are not typically early indicators of multiple myeloma.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. Which electrolyte imbalance is the patient at risk for developing with spironolactone therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in the management of heart failure. One of the significant side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the bloodstream. Spironolactone works by blocking the action of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates potassium and sodium balance in the body. By inhibiting aldosterone, spironolactone reduces potassium excretion in the urine, leading to potential accumulation of potassium in the body.

Question 4 of 9

A patient with a tibial shaft fracture undergoes surgical fixation with an intramedullary nail. What postoperative complication should the healthcare team monitor for in the immediate postoperative period?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Following surgical fixation of a tibial shaft fracture with an intramedullary nail, healthcare providers should monitor for the development of fat embolism syndrome (FES) in the immediate postoperative period. FES is a serious complication that occurs when fat droplets from the bone marrow enter the bloodstream and cause respiratory and neurological symptoms. Clinical manifestations of FES may include dyspnea, tachypnea, petechial rash, altered mental status, and hypoxemia. Prompt recognition and treatment are essential in managing fat embolism syndrome to prevent serious complications such as respiratory failure and neurological deficits. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of FES is crucial in the postoperative care of patients undergoing surgical fixation of long bone fractures.

Question 5 of 9

When one has a Cushing disease the focal structure affected is the _______.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When one has Cushing's disease, the focal structure affected is the pituitary gland. Cushing's disease is caused by the overproduction of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) by the pituitary gland. This excess ACTH stimulates the adrenal glands to produce too much cortisol, leading to the symptoms associated with Cushing's disease. Therefore, the primary issue originates in the pituitary gland, not the other structures mentioned in the question.

Question 6 of 9

A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage heart failure experiences paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to improve respiratory mechanics is the most appropriate intervention for managing paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea in a patient with end-stage heart failure. By keeping the head of the bed elevated, gravity helps reduce the pooling of fluid in the lungs, making it easier for the patient to breathe and reducing dyspnea. This strategy can help improve oxygenation and decrease the sensation of breathlessness, providing relief for the patient. Administering diuretic medications (Option A) can also be beneficial to reduce fluid overload, although positioning remains a key intervention. Encouraging the patient to sleep in a reclined position (Option C) can help alleviate symptoms, but specifically elevating the head of the bed is a more targeted approach. Referring the patient to a sleep specialist (Option D) may not be necessary at this time, as the primary concern is managing the acute symptom of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

Question 7 of 9

A patient with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed atorvastatin for lipid-lowering therapy. Which parameter should the nurse monitor closely during atorvastatin therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Atorvastatin is a medication commonly used for lipid-lowering therapy to reduce cholesterol levels and decrease the risk of cardiovascular events. However, one of the potential side effects of statin medications such as atorvastatin is liver injury. Therefore, monitoring liver function tests, including alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) levels, is crucial during atorvastatin therapy.

Question 8 of 9

A patient presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and glycosuria. Which type of diabetes mellitus is the patient most likely experiencing?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient is most likely experiencing Type 1 diabetes mellitus based on the presentation of polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, hyperglycemia, and glycosuria. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to absolute insulin deficiency. This results in high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and glucose spilling into the urine (glycosuria). Patients with Type 1 diabetes often present with the classic symptoms of polyuria (increased urination), polydipsia (increased thirst), and polyphagia (increased hunger) due to the body's inability to utilize glucose for energy effectively. Management of Type 1 diabetes typically involves lifelong insulin therapy to maintain blood sugar levels within a target range.

Question 9 of 9

A pregnant woman presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and dark red vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks gestation. On examination, the uterus is tender, and the fundus feels firm. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most likely cause of the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and dark red vaginal bleeding with a tender, firm uterus at 28 weeks gestation is abruptio placentae. Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. This condition can be life-threatening to both the mother and the fetus, as it can lead to severe bleeding and compromise the oxygen and nutrients supply to the fetus. The presentation typically includes severe abdominal pain, dark red or maroon vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and a firm uterus due to the blood accumulation behind the placenta. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial to prevent adverse maternal and fetal outcomes.

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