ATI RN
Population Based Health Care Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse conducts group therapy on the eating disorders unit. Sessions are scheduled immediately after meals. What is the rationale?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because scheduling group therapy sessions immediately after meals can help promote processing of anxiety associated with eating. This timing allows patients to address their feelings and thoughts about food in a supportive environment, leading to better understanding and management of their anxieties. Choice A is incorrect because journaling about foods eaten is not the primary purpose of group therapy sessions. Choice B is incorrect as the main focus is on addressing anxiety related to eating disorders, not shifting focus to psychotherapy. Choice D is incorrect as weight control mechanisms and food preparation are not the main objectives of group therapy for eating disorders.
Question 2 of 5
A severely depressed patient with psychomotor retardation has begun activities therapy. His schedule is: 9 AM, ceramics; 10 AM, exercise group; 11 AM to noon, open; noon, lunch. The nurse creating the patient's schedule should opt to fill the hour block from 11 AM to noon with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A rest period. Providing a rest period during the hour block from 11 AM to noon is crucial for a severely depressed patient with psychomotor retardation. This patient may experience fatigue and decreased energy levels due to their condition. Allowing for a rest period can help prevent overstimulation and promote relaxation, which is essential for mental well-being. Group therapy (choice A) may be too overwhelming for the patient at this time. Reminiscence group (choice C) may not be as beneficial for immediate symptom management. Individual counseling (choice D) may be helpful but may not align with the patient's immediate need for rest and relaxation.
Question 3 of 5
Family members of a patient newly diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia state that they do not understand what caused the patient's illness. The nurse's response should be predicated on the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the Neurobiological-genetic model, because paranoid schizophrenia is known to have a strong genetic component. Research has shown that individuals with a family history of schizophrenia are at a higher risk of developing the disorder. The neurobiological aspect refers to the abnormalities in brain structure and function associated with schizophrenia, such as neurotransmitter imbalances. Therefore, the nurse should educate the family members about the genetic predisposition and neurobiological factors contributing to the patient's illness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: The Stress model focuses on the role of environmental stressors in triggering or exacerbating mental illness, which is not the primary cause of paranoid schizophrenia. C: The Family theory model emphasizes family dynamics and interactions as contributing factors to mental illness, but it is not the primary cause of paranoid schizophrenia. D: The Developmental model looks at how early childhood experiences and developmental stages may influence mental health outcomes, but it is not the primary etiology of paranoid
Question 4 of 5
A newly admitted client has the diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. The nurse would expect to assess:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Psychomotor symptoms are characteristic of catatonic schizophrenia, such as stupor or excessive motor activity. B: Intense suspiciousness is more indicative of paranoid schizophrenia, not catatonic schizophrenia. C: Inappropriate affect is a symptom seen in other types of schizophrenia but not specific to catatonic schizophrenia. D: Clanging communication is associated with disorganized schizophrenia, not catatonic schizophrenia. In catatonic schizophrenia, psychomotor symptoms like stupor, rigidity, or excitement are prominent.
Question 5 of 5
An expected outcome for a client who hears voices telling him he is evil would be that by discharge, client will:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it focuses on addressing the underlying causes of the client's experience of hearing voices and feeling evil. By identifying events that increase anxiety and promote hallucinations, the client can work on reducing these triggers and managing his symptoms effectively. This approach is key for long-term improvement and recovery. A: Verbalizing the reason the voices say he is evil does not address the root cause of the hallucinations and may not lead to effective coping strategies. B: Responding verbally to the voices may not be therapeutic and could potentially reinforce the hallucinations. D: Integrating the voices into his personality structure in a positive manner is not a recommended approach as it could lead to further distress and potentially harmful behaviors.