ATI RN
Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse conducts a regular audit of the medical records the PRIMARY purpose of conducting audit in a health facility is to _____.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary purpose of conducting an audit in a health facility is to ensure that standards are met. Audits are conducted to review and evaluate the documentation and practices within a healthcare facility to ensure compliance with established standards, protocols, procedures, and regulations. By conducting audits, the facility can identify any discrepancies, non-compliance with standards, or areas for improvement to maintain high-quality care and patient safety. This process helps in maintaining a high standard of care, reducing errors, promoting quality improvement initiatives, and ensuring the overall efficiency and effectiveness of healthcare services provided in the facility.
Question 2 of 9
A woman in active labor experiences frequent and intense uterine contractions with minimal rest intervals, leading to maternal fatigue and decreased fetal oxygenation. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to this abnormal labor pattern?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Uterine hyperstimulation is a condition in which the uterus contracts too frequently or too intensely, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygenation to the placenta. This can result in maternal fatigue and decreased fetal oxygenation due to the lack of sufficient rest intervals between contractions. Uterine hyperstimulation can be caused by factors such as the use of synthetic oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce or augment labor, uterine abnormalities, or maternal conditions like pre-eclampsia. It is important for the nurse to assess for uterine hyperstimulation in a woman experiencing frequent and intense contractions to intervene promptly and prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
Question 3 of 9
Demography is concerned with the study of population. Which of the following are included in demographic profile?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The demographic profile of a population encompasses various aspects, including size, distribution, composition, and change over time.
Question 4 of 9
The group was observant as to the activities taking place in the delivery room. One of the activities involved social processes, which can be better explored. Which of the following qualitative research method should be used?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Grounded theory is a qualitative research method that focuses on generating theory from data rather than testing pre-existing theories. In this scenario, where the goal is to explore social processes observed in the delivery room activities, grounded theory would be the most appropriate method. This method allows researchers to systematically collect and analyze data in order to develop theoretical explanations for social phenomena. By using grounded theory, researchers can explore the interactions, behaviors, and social processes at play in the delivery room in a structured and systematic way, thereby gaining insights into these phenomena through an inductive approach.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with severe headache, blurred vision, and fatigue. Laboratory tests reveal elevated white blood cell count, thrombocytosis, and presence of JAK2 V617F mutation. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation of severe headache, blurred vision, and fatigue, along with the laboratory findings of elevated white blood cell count, thrombocytosis, and JAK2 V617F mutation, are characteristic of essential thrombocythemia. This is a myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by the clonal proliferation of megakaryocytes, leading to an increased platelet count. The JAK2 V617F mutation is commonly found in essential thrombocythemia and other myeloproliferative disorders. The symptoms of essential thrombocythemia can be related to the increased blood viscosity and risk of thrombosis due to the elevated platelet count. Polycythemia vera would present with elevated red blood cell count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit, along with other features such as pruritus after a hot bath. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of severe headache associated with ipsilateral lacrimation, rhinorrhea, and ptosis. Symptoms are often triggered by alcohol consumption. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient is presenting with symptoms consistent with cluster headache. Cluster headaches are characterized by recurrent episodes of severe unilateral (ipsilateral) headache accompanied by lacrimation (tearing from the eyes), rhinorrhea (runny nose), and ptosis (drooping of the eyelid). These headaches often occur in clusters over a period of weeks to months, hence the name "cluster headache."
Question 7 of 9
In the tertiary hospital where the patient is referred , he was considered an emergency case. The nurse immediately call for a specialist who is ______.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient was considered an emergency case upon referral to the tertiary hospital. Since a specialist was immediately called for by the nurse, the most likely specialist needed in an emergency situation is a neurologist. Neurologists are physicians who specialize in diagnosing and treating disorders of the nervous system, including the brain, spinal cord, and nerves. In an emergency case where a patient's neurological condition needs urgent attention, a neurologist would be the most appropriate specialist to address the situation promptly and effectively.
Question 8 of 9
When communicating with a patient who speaks a different language, what is the nurse's best approach?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Using professional medical interpreters is the best approach when communicating with a patient who speaks a different language. This ensures accurate communication and helps prevent misunderstandings that can have serious consequences for the patient's health. Family members or friends may not be fluent in the necessary medical terminology and could unintentionally misinterpret information. Relying solely on written instructions can also be risky as the patient may have difficulty reading or comprehending the information. Speaking loudly and slowly may come across as disrespectful and does not address the root issue of the language barrier. Professional medical interpreters are trained to facilitate effective communication between healthcare providers and patients, ensuring that the patient receives the best possible care.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse anticipates that which one is prescribed to prevent a common bacterial complication from the dog bite?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic commonly prescribed for the prevention of bacterial infections that can result from animal bites, such as dog bites. Dog bites are often contaminated with bacteria and can lead to infections, particularly from organisms such as Pasteurella multocida. Ciprofloxacin is effective against a broad range of bacteria, including those commonly found in animal bites, making it a suitable choice for infection prophylaxis in this scenario. Ibuprofen is a pain reliever and anti-inflammatory medication, tetanus toxoid is given to prevent tetanus infection, and meperidine is a narcotic analgesic used for pain relief, but none of these options specifically target bacterial prevention in the case of a dog bite.