ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse completes a nursing history form when a patient is admitted to a nursing unit, not when the patient is discharged. SOAP notes are not given to patients who are being discharged. SOAP notes are a type of documentation style. A home health nurse is preparing for an initialhome visit. Which information should be included in the patient’s home care medical record?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reports to third-party payers. In home health care, it is essential to document and report patient care to third-party payers for reimbursement purposes. This includes detailed reports on the services provided, patient progress, and any changes in the care plan. This information is crucial for ensuring that the patient receives appropriate reimbursement for the care received. Incorrect choices: A: Nursing process form - While a nursing process form is important for documenting patient care, it is not specifically related to reporting to third-party payers. B: Step-by-step skills manual - While a skills manual may be helpful for guiding care provision, it is not typically included in the patient's medical record. C: A list of possible procedures - While a list of procedures may be useful for reference, it is not a formal part of the patient's medical record for home care documentation.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is charting on a patient’s record. Whichaction will the nurse take that is accurate legally?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Charts legibly. This is accurate legally because clear and legible documentation is crucial for accurately conveying patient information, ensuring continuity of care, and meeting legal standards. Illegible handwriting can lead to errors in patient care and legal issues. Choice B is incorrect as labeling a patient as "belligerent" without evidence can be perceived as unprofessional and potentially harmful to the patient. Choice C is incorrect as writing an entry for another nurse can lead to inaccurate documentation and legal consequences. Choice D is incorrect because using correction fluid can raise suspicion of tampering with records and compromise the integrity of the documentation.
Question 3 of 9
A 58-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for a wedge resection of the left lower lung lobe after a routine chest x-ray shows carcinoma. The patient is anxious and asks if he can smoke. Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?" This response acknowledges the patient's anxiety and invites him to explore his reasons for wanting to smoke, opening up a dialogue and potentially uncovering underlying issues. It also avoids judgment or direct orders, fostering a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: A: "Smoking is the reason you are here." - This response is blaming and may increase the patient's guilt or anxiety, hindering effective communication. B: "The doctor left orders for you not to smoke." - This response is authoritative and may lead to resistance or defensiveness from the patient, rather than addressing his concerns. D: "Smoking is OK right now, but after your surgery it is contraindicated." - This response is unclear and may send mixed messages to the patient, potentially leading to confusion or misunderstanding.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is concerned about pulmonary aspiration when providing the patient with an intermittent tube feeding. Which action is thepriority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because verifying tube placement before feeding is essential to prevent pulmonary aspiration. If the tube is not correctly positioned in the stomach, there is a risk of feeding going into the lungs. Observing the color of gastric contents (A) may not always indicate correct placement. Adding blue food coloring (C) is unnecessary and could cause confusion. Running the formula over 12 hours (D) does not address the risk of pulmonary aspiration and does not ensure proper tube placement.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is sitting at the patient’s bedside takinga nursing history. Which zone of personal space is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse sitting at the patient's bedside is using the personal zone of personal space, which ranges from 18 inches to 4 feet. This distance allows for a close interaction suitable for taking a nursing history while maintaining a professional yet personal connection. The socio-consultative zone (A) is 4-12 feet, more appropriate for professional interactions. The intimate zone (C) is 0-18 inches, too close for an initial nursing history. The public zone (D) is 12 feet or more, too distant for a personal conversation.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is preparing to lavage a patient in theemergency department for an overdose. Which tube should the nurse obtain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ewald tube. This tube is used for gastric lavage due to its large diameter and open end which allows for effective suction of gastric contents. The Ewald tube is specifically designed for gastric lavage and is ideal for removing toxins from the stomach. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: B: Dobhoff tube is a small-bore feeding tube, not suitable for gastric lavage. C: Miller-Abbott tube is used for intestinal decompression, not gastric lavage. D: Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used for esophageal varices, not gastric lavage.
Question 7 of 9
To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Finasteride is a medication that works by decreasing glandular cellular activity and reducing prostate size. Step 2: Dietary supplements can interact with finasteride, potentially affecting its effectiveness or causing adverse effects. Step 3: Reporting the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician ensures proper monitoring and adjustment of the treatment plan. Step 4: This communication promotes patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes. Therefore, choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of informing the physician about dietary supplement use to ensure the efficacy and safety of finasteride. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the mechanism of action or specific considerations of finasteride therapy.
Question 8 of 9
The hospice nurse is caring for a patient with cancer in her home. The nurse has explained to the patient and the family that the patient is at risk for hypercalcemia and has educated them on that signs and symptoms of this health problem. What else should the nurse teach this patient and family to do to reduce the patients risk of hypercalcemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C is correct because adequate hydration helps prevent hypercalcemia by promoting the excretion of excess calcium in the urine. This reduces the risk of calcium buildup in the blood. Consuming 2 to 4 liters of fluid daily ensures proper hydration, which is crucial for patients at risk for hypercalcemia. Stool softeners (Option A) are not contraindicated and can help prevent constipation, which may be a side effect of some cancer treatments. Laxatives (Option B) should not be taken daily as they can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Restricting calcium intake (Option D) is not the primary intervention for preventing hypercalcemia; rather, maintaining adequate hydration is key.
Question 9 of 9
A patients primary infection with HIV has subsided and an equilibrium now exists between HIV levels and the patients immune response. This physiologic state is known as which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Viral set point. The viral set point refers to the stable level of HIV in the body after the initial infection. This state indicates a balance between viral replication and the immune response. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Static stage implies no change, which is not the case with HIV levels fluctuating; B) Latent stage refers to a period of inactivity, not the stable state described; D) Window period is the time between infection and detectable antibodies, not the equilibrium state described.