A nurse completes a nursing history form when a patient is admitted to a nursing unit, not when the patient is discharged. SOAP notes are not given to patients who are being discharged. SOAP notes are a type of documentation style. A home health nurse is preparing for an initialhome visit. Which information should be included in the patient’s home care medical record?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reports to third-party payers. In home health care, it is essential to document and report patient care to third-party payers for reimbursement purposes. This includes detailed reports on the services provided, patient progress, and any changes in the care plan. This information is crucial for ensuring that the patient receives appropriate reimbursement for the care received. Incorrect choices: A: Nursing process form - While a nursing process form is important for documenting patient care, it is not specifically related to reporting to third-party payers. B: Step-by-step skills manual - While a skills manual may be helpful for guiding care provision, it is not typically included in the patient's medical record. C: A list of possible procedures - While a list of procedures may be useful for reference, it is not a formal part of the patient's medical record for home care documentation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the severity of an anaphylactic reaction can vary greatly from one episode to another in the same patient. Anaphylactic reactions are unpredictable and can be influenced by various factors such as the amount of allergen exposure, individual immune response, underlying health conditions, and concurrent medications. Therefore, it is not possible to reliably gauge the severity of a patient's anaphylactic reaction even if it has occurred repeatedly in the past. Choice A is incorrect because the onset of symptoms alone is not a reliable predictor of the severity of the reaction. Choice B is incorrect as well because there is no set formula to predict that the reaction will be one-third more severe than the patient's last reaction. Choice D is incorrect because stating that the reaction will generally be slightly less severe than the last reaction is also not accurate or supported by evidence.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because turning off the television is necessary for effective learning and communication between the nurse preceptor and student nurse. Watching TV can be distracting and disrespectful during the learning process. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chewing gum, speaking clearly and loudly, and using at least 14-point print are behaviors that do not hinder the learning process and can be acceptable in a professional setting.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Administering an enema Rationale: Administering an enema is a task that can be safely delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP) as it is within their scope of practice and does not require the specialized knowledge and skills of a registered nurse. NAP can be trained to perform enema administration safely and effectively, under the supervision of a nurse. This task involves following a specific procedure and does not require clinical judgment or decision-making. Summary of other choices: A: Performing the first postoperative pouch change - This task involves wound care and assessment, which require the expertise of a registered nurse. B: Maintaining a nasogastric tube - This task involves ongoing assessment, monitoring for complications, and adjustments, which are responsibilities of a registered nurse. D: Digitally removing stool - This task involves invasive procedures and assessment, which are beyond the scope of practice for nursing assistive personnel.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breech presentation. Obesity can lead to a larger fetus, increasing the risk of breech presentation. The rationale is that excess fat can hinder the baby's ability to turn head down. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Ectopic pregnancy is not related to obesity, C: Birth defects can be influenced by maternal health but are not directly linked to obesity, and D: Venous thromboembolism is more associated with immobility and hypercoagulable states rather than obesity.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Use of a raised toilet seat Rationale: A raised toilet seat helps the patient with Parkinson's disease by providing additional height, making it easier for them to transition from sitting to standing. This aids in improving mobility and reducing the risk of falls. Furthermore, the raised seat can also promote proper positioning for bowel elimination, making the process more comfortable and effective. Incorrect Choices: A: Using a bedpan does not address the issue of transitioning from sitting to standing, nor does it aid in improving bowel elimination for the patient. C: Sitting quietly on the toilet every 2 hours may not directly address the physical challenges the patient is facing in transitioning from sitting to standing. D: Following the outlined bowel program is important, but it does not specifically address the physical support needed to transition from sitting to standing for a patient with Parkinson's disease.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Total placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta completely covers the cervix, posing a risk of severe bleeding during vaginal delivery. Cesarean birth is necessary to avoid potential life-threatening complications for both the mother and the baby. Partial abruptio placentae (choice A) involves premature separation of the placenta, but it doesn't always require a cesarean birth. Ectopic pregnancy (choice C) occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, typically requiring surgical intervention but not always a cesarean birth. Eclampsia (choice D) is a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and seizures, but it doesn't always necessitate cesarean birth unless there are other complications that require it.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Immunotherapy injections can cause allergic reactions. Step 2: Monitoring post-injection is crucial to detect and manage any potential adverse reactions promptly. Step 3: Staying in the clinic for 30 minutes allows for immediate intervention if needed. Step 4: This ensures patient safety and reduces the risk of severe reactions. Summary: A: Epinephrine is not typically given before immunotherapy injections. C: Therapeutic response may take longer than 3 months to show. D: Immunotherapy is usually given via subcutaneous route, not intravenous.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Urge urinary incontinence Rationale: 1. The patient's symptoms of strong desire to void and leakage on the way to the toilet indicate urge urinary incontinence. 2. Urge urinary incontinence is characterized by a sudden, strong need to urinate with involuntary leakage. Incorrect Choices: A: Functional urinary incontinence - This type is due to factors such as cognitive or physical impairment, not a strong urge to void. C: Impaired skin integrity - While important, this is a potential consequence of urinary incontinence, not the priority nursing diagnosis. D: Urinary retention - This would present with the inability to empty the bladder, not symptoms of frequent urge to void and leakage.