ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drug Therapy Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse can anticipate anticholinergic side effects are likely when a patient takes:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, fluphenazine (Prolixin). Fluphenazine is a typical antipsychotic that exerts its effects by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, causing anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention. The other options (A, B, C) are not typically associated with significant anticholinergic side effects. Lithium is known for renal and thyroid side effects, buspirone for dizziness and nausea, and risperidone for metabolic side effects. Therefore, D is the correct choice for anticipating anticholinergic side effects in patients.
Question 2 of 5
A patient arrives at the urgent care center complaining of leg pain after a fall when rock climbing. The x-rays show no broken bones, but he has a large bruise on his thigh. The patient says he drives a truck and does not want to take anything strong because he needs to stay awake. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: You can take acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol, for pain, but no more than 3000 mg per day. Rationale: 1. Acetaminophen is a suitable option for mild to moderate pain relief and is less likely to cause drowsiness compared to opioids. 2. The recommended maximum daily dose of acetaminophen is 3000 mg to avoid potential liver damage. 3. Advising the patient to take acetaminophen up to 3000 mg per day balances pain management with patient safety. 4. Option C's limit of 1000 mg per day may not provide sufficient pain relief for the patient's condition. 5. Option A is too vague and does not address the patient's pain management needs effectively. 6. Option B suggests opioid use without considering the patient's preference to avoid strong medications that may impair his ability to drive.
Question 3 of 5
During a follow-up visit, the health care provider examines the fundus of the patient’s eye. Afterward, the patient asks the nurse, “Why is he looking at my eyes when I have high blood pressure? It does not make sense to me!” What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D): The nurse should explain that examining the fundus can help assess the long-term effectiveness of high blood pressure treatment. Changes in the blood vessels of the eye can indicate the impact of hypertension on the patient's overall health. Monitoring the fundus can reveal signs of hypertensive retinopathy, a serious complication of uncontrolled high blood pressure. By checking the fundus, the provider can ensure the treatment is preventing damage to the eyes and potentially other organs. This response educates the patient on the importance of regular eye examinations in managing hypertension. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Monitoring for drug toxicity is not the primary reason for examining the fundus in a patient with high blood pressure. B: Increased intraocular pressure is related to conditions like glaucoma, not specifically to high blood pressure. C: Visual changes from drug therapy are important to monitor, but the fundus examination in this context is more focused on assessing hypertension-related changes.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has been instructed to take one enteric-coated low-dose aspirin a day as part of therapy to prevent strokes. The nurse will provide which instruction when providing patient teaching about this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Taking with water and food helps prevent stomach irritation. 2. Enteric-coated aspirin can cause irritation if taken on an empty stomach. 3. Water helps with swallowing and food helps with absorption. 4. Ensuring proper intake enhances its effectiveness in stroke prevention. Summary: A is incorrect as aspirin is enteric-coated for a reason, not requiring an empty stomach. B is incorrect as bleeding is a potential risk with aspirin therapy. D is incorrect as crushing coated tablets can alter their efficacy.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is providing instructions about the Advair inhaler (fluticasone propionate and salmeterol). Which statement about this inhaler is accurate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Advair inhaler contains fluticasone propionate (a steroid) and salmeterol (a long-acting bronchodilator) which work together to prevent bronchospasms. Fluticasone reduces inflammation in the airways, while salmeterol helps to relax the muscles around the airways. This combination is not meant for the treatment of acute bronchospasms (A), does not require a spacer for best results (B), and does not have any specific restrictions on drinking water after use (C).