ATI RN
Introduction to Professional Nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse assesses a client with asthma and notes bilateral wheezing, decreased pulse oxygen saturation, and suprasternal retraction on inhalation. What actions by the nurse are best? (Select all that do not apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tracheal deviation is not a typical assessment finding in a client with asthma. The presence of bilateral wheezing, decreased oxygen saturation, and suprasternal retraction suggests an exacerbation of asthma, not a condition that would cause tracheal deviation. Administering a salmeterol inhaler (choice A) is appropriate for managing asthma symptoms. Administering oxygen and placing the client on an oximeter (choice C) is also appropriate to monitor oxygen saturation levels. Performing peak expiratory flow readings (choice D) is a standard assessment tool for evaluating asthma severity. However, assessing the client for tracheal deviation (choice B) is not relevant to the management of asthma exacerbation and would not provide helpful information in this case.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a 64-year-old patient with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which factor should the nurse focus on during the teaching session?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level) because it directly correlates with the patient's CAD condition. Elevated LDL cholesterol is a major risk factor for developing CAD. By focusing on lowering the LDL level through lifestyle changes and medication, the nurse can effectively manage and prevent further progression of the disease. A (Family history of coronary artery disease) while important, is a non-modifiable risk factor and may not be as impactful in the teaching plan as addressing the patient's current elevated LDL level. C (Greater risk associated with the patient's gender) is not as relevant in this case because the patient's specific risk factors should be the main focus rather than general gender-related risks. D (Increased risk of cardiovascular disease with aging) is a common risk factor, but in this case, addressing the patient's elevated LDL level would be more specific and beneficial for managing CAD.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is reviewing drug therapy for hypertension. According to the JNC-8 guidelines, antihypertensive drug therapy for a newly diagnosed hypertensive African-American patient would most likely include which drug or drug classes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Calcium channel blockers with thiazide diuretics. According to JNC-8 guidelines, for African-American patients with hypertension, the preferred initial drug therapy includes calcium channel blockers and thiazide diuretics due to their effectiveness in this population. Calcium channel blockers are particularly beneficial in African-Americans, and thiazide diuretics help to address volume overload. Vasodilators alone (A) are not typically recommended as initial therapy. ACE inhibitors (B) are not the first-line choice for African-American patients. Beta blockers (D) are not the preferred initial therapy for this population based on JNC-8 guidelines.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse reviews the laboratory results of a client who is receiving intravenous insulin. Which would alert the nurse to intervene immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L (2.5 mmol/L). A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can be life-threatening, especially in a client receiving intravenous insulin, as insulin promotes cellular uptake of potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Symptoms of hypokalemia include muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and respiratory failure. Therefore, the nurse must intervene immediately by administering potassium supplements or adjusting the insulin dose. Summary: A: Serum chloride level - normal range, not directly related to insulin therapy. B: Serum calcium level - normal range, not directly related to insulin therapy. C: Serum sodium level - normal range, not directly related to insulin therapy.
Question 5 of 5
A patient who has insulin dependent diabetes mellitis must take a glucocorticoid medication nurse will explain that there may be a need to?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase insulin dose. When a patient with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus takes glucocorticoid medication, it can lead to increased blood glucose levels due to the medication's impact on insulin sensitivity. Therefore, increasing the insulin dose helps to maintain optimal blood glucose control. Decreasing insulin dose (B) would worsen hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose less frequently (C) is risky as it may lead to missed hyperglycemic episodes. Stopping insulin temporarily (D) is dangerous and can result in severe hyperglycemia.