ATI RN
Respiratory System Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse assesses a client after an open lung biopsy. Which assessment finding is matched with the correct intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Reduced breath sounds after an open lung biopsy could indicate a potential complication such as pneumothorax, requiring immediate attention. Calling the primary health care provider allows for timely assessment and intervention. Choice A is incorrect because dizziness alone may not warrant calling the Rapid Response Team without further assessment. Choice B is incorrect as a heart rate of 55 beats/min may not necessarily indicate a need to withhold pain medication without considering other factors. Choice D is incorrect as a respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min does not necessarily mean the oxygen flow rate should be decreased without further assessment.
Question 2 of 5
An older adult is brought to the emergency department by a family member who reports a moderate change in mental status and mild cough. The client is afebrile. The primary health care provider orders a chest x-ray. The family member questions why this is needed since the symptoms seem so vague. What response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because older adults often present with atypical or vague symptoms when they have an underlying infection, including pneumonia. It is crucial to assess for pneumonia in older adults promptly because they may not exhibit classic signs like fever. An x-ray is essential to confirm or rule out pneumonia as it allows for visualization of lung abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because not all older adults with vague symptoms automatically have pneumonia, and ordering a chest x-ray is based on clinical judgment. Choice C is incorrect as the timing of the x-ray in relation to laboratory work is not the primary reason for ordering it. Choice D is incorrect because the x-ray is specifically to assess for pneumonia, not for general infection sources.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following signs may be revealed in a client with tonsillar infection by a visual examination if group A streptococci is the cause?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) White patches on the tonsils. When a client with tonsillar infection caused by group A streptococci is visually examined, the presence of white patches on the tonsils, known as exudative tonsillitis, is a common sign. These white patches are an indication of pus accumulation due to the bacterial infection. Option B) Hemorrhage in the tonsils is not typically associated with group A streptococcal infection but may occur in other conditions like trauma or in severe cases of tonsillitis. Option C) Hypertrophied tonsils refer to enlarged tonsils, which can be seen in chronic tonsillitis or repeated infections, but it is not specific to group A streptococcal infection. Option D) Bleeding in the tonsils is not a typical sign of tonsillar infection by group A streptococci. Bleeding may occur in cases of trauma or in severe infections, but it is not a characteristic sign of this specific bacterial infection. Educationally, understanding the characteristic signs of different types of tonsillar infections is crucial for healthcare professionals to accurately diagnose and treat patients. Recognizing specific visual cues can help in determining the appropriate course of treatment, such as prescribing antibiotics for group A streptococcal infections. It also aids in providing proper patient education about the condition and its management.
Question 4 of 5
The client with sleep apnea has a nursing diagnosis of Sleep Deprivation related to disrupted sleep cycle. Which action should you delegate to the nursing assistant?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Reminding the client to sleep on their side is a simple intervention suitable for a nursing assistant. Discussing weight loss strategies (A) and teaching BiPAP machine use (B) require more specialized knowledge. Administering medication (D) is outside the scope of practice for a nursing assistant.
Question 5 of 5
A patient who has successfully been treated for a pulmonary embolism is about to be discharged. How can he lower the risk of experiencing another pulmonary embolism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Avoid sitting and standing for too long and do not cross legs. This is because prolonged periods of immobility can lead to blood stagnation in the legs, increasing the risk of clot formation which can travel to the lungs causing a pulmonary embolism. By staying active and avoiding prolonged sitting or standing, the patient can promote healthy blood circulation and reduce the risk of clot formation. Option B) Take vitamin K with heparin is incorrect as vitamin K actually promotes blood clotting, which would be counterproductive in this situation where we want to prevent clots. Option C) Avoid confined spaces is incorrect as the risk of pulmonary embolism is more related to factors like immobility, underlying conditions, or genetic predispositions rather than the physical environment. Option D) Jog 5 miles each day is also incorrect as while exercise is beneficial for overall health, recommending a specific high-intensity activity like jogging 5 miles each day may not be appropriate or feasible for all patients, especially those recovering from a pulmonary embolism. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide patients with clear and practical advice on how to prevent complications like pulmonary embolism after treatment. Understanding the role of mobility in preventing clot formation is essential information for patients to maintain their health and well-being.