ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse approaches a hospitalized poststroke patient from the patient’s left side to do an assessment. The patient is staring straight ahead, and does not respond to the nurse’s presence or voice. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. By approaching the patient from the other side, the nurse can assess if the patient has a visual field deficit. 2. This step helps determine if the lack of response is due to a sensory issue. 3. It allows the nurse to rule out unilateral neglect or hemianopsia. 4. Walking to the other side is a basic assessment technique to evaluate visual and sensory deficits in poststroke patients. Other Choices: B. Speaking more loudly and clearly may not address the potential sensory issues the patient is experiencing. C. Waving fingers in front of the patient's face does not provide a comprehensive assessment of visual field deficits. D. Using a picture may be helpful, but addressing the potential visual field deficit should be prioritized first.
Question 2 of 9
A 68-year old client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with her going outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse would suspect which of the following disorders?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperparathyroidism. This disorder is characterized by excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium levels in the blood. The symptoms described in the question - bone pain, weakness, irritability, and depression - are all associated with hypercalcemia, a common manifestation of hyperparathyroidism. Additionally, the client's anorexia and increased urination can be attributed to the effects of hypercalcemia on the gastrointestinal and renal systems. Diabetes mellitus (choice A) involves high blood sugar levels and is not associated with the symptoms described. Hypoparathyroidism (choice B) is characterized by low levels of parathyroid hormone and calcium, leading to different symptoms such as muscle cramps and seizures. Diabetes insipidus (choice C) is a disorder of water balance characterized by excessive thirst and urination, not the symptoms presented in the question.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information provided by the patient based on their feelings, perceptions, and experiences. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is subjective data as it reflects the patient's emotional state. The other choices, A, B, and D, are considered objective data because they are observable and measurable by the nurse. The patient's temperature can be measured (A), the wound appearance can be visually assessed (B), and the patient pacing the floor is an observable behavior (D). Therefore, these choices are not subjective data.
Question 4 of 9
A patient who is being tested for HIV asks what tests are used. The nurse would correct in stating that the tests used to confirm HIV infection are which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ELISA and Western Blot. The rationale is as follows: ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) and Western Blot are specific tests used to confirm HIV infection by detecting antibodies or antigens related to the virus. ELISA is the initial screening test, while Western Blot is the confirmatory test. These tests are highly sensitive and specific for HIV detection. Choice A is incorrect because CD4+ cell count and thymus function are not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are used to monitor disease progression and immune function in HIV-positive individuals. Choice C is incorrect because B-cell and T-cell count are also not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are indicators of immune system health but not specific for HIV diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because while CD4+ and viral load tests are used in monitoring HIV progression, ELISA is the main confirmatory test for HIV diagnosis, and viral load is not typically used for initial
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is instructed to perform preoperative preparation for the management of a client with malignant tumors. Which of the ff is the most important factor of the nursing management plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintaining the integrity of the urinary system. This is crucial in preoperative preparation for a client with malignant tumors to prevent complications such as urinary obstruction or infection. Assessing symptoms of peritonitis (B) is important but not as critical as ensuring urinary system integrity. Insertion of an ostomy pouch (A) and nasogastric tube diversion procedure (D) may be necessary interventions for some cases, but they are not as essential as ensuring the urinary system's integrity to prevent serious complications.
Question 6 of 9
Mr. Reyea complains of hearing ringing noises. The nurse recognizes that this assessment suggests injury of the
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Eight Cranial Nerve (Vestibulocochlear). This nerve is responsible for hearing and balance. Ringing noises indicate a disturbance in hearing function. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Frontal lobe is associated with executive functions, not hearing. B: Six cranial nerve (abducent) controls eye movement. C: Occipital lobe is related to vision, not hearing. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it directly relates to the symptom described.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse assesses that a patient has not voided in 6 hours. Which question should the nurse ask to assist in establishing a nursing diagnosis of Urinary retention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Asking if the patient feels the need to go to the bathroom helps assess urgency. 2. Urinary retention may lead to the inability to sense the urge to void. 3. This question directly addresses the issue of voiding, crucial in diagnosing urinary retention. Summary: B: Mobility is not directly related to urinary retention. C: Medication timing is important but not directly related to urinary retention. D: Safety rail inquiry is more related to fall prevention, not urinary retention.
Question 8 of 9
Which vein should be used first when initiating IV therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basilic vein. It is preferred for IV therapy due to its size, accessibility, and lower risk of complications. Basilic vein is deep and stable, aiding in successful catheter insertion and reduced risk of infiltration. Jugular vein (A) is not typically used due to the high risk of complications like infection. Brachiocephalic (C) and Axillary (D) veins are less commonly used as they are smaller and more prone to complications compared to the Basilic vein. In summary, the Basilic vein is the optimal choice for initiating IV therapy due to its size, accessibility, stability, and lower risk of complications.
Question 9 of 9
Why may an ice collar be ordered for a client who is undergoing drainage of a peritonsillar abscess?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To prevent respiratory obstruction. An ice collar is used to reduce swelling and inflammation, which can help prevent the abscess from compressing the airway and causing respiratory obstruction. This is crucial in cases of peritonsillar abscess to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the primary concern of preventing respiratory obstruction in this context.