ATI RN
Nurse in Psychiatry Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse administers pure oxygen to a client during and after electroconvulsive therapy. What is the nurse’s rationale for this procedure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To prevent anoxia due to medication-induced paralysis of respiratory muscles. During electroconvulsive therapy, muscle relaxants are often used to prevent injury during the seizure. These medications can lead to paralysis of respiratory muscles, causing potential anoxia if oxygen is not administered. Providing pure oxygen ensures adequate oxygenation despite muscle paralysis. Incorrect Choices: A: Preventing increased intracranial pressure is not the primary rationale for administering oxygen during ECT. C: Hypotension, bradycardia, and bradypnea are potential side effects of ECT itself, but oxygen administration is not primarily to prevent these. D: Oxygen is not administered to prevent a blocked airway but rather to ensure adequate oxygenation during muscle paralysis.
Question 2 of 9
Which response by the nurse would best assist a patient in de-escalating aggressive behavior?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates active listening and shows empathy towards the patient, which can help them feel heard and understood. By inviting the patient to express their feelings and concerns, the nurse can help de-escalate the situation by addressing the underlying issues. Choice B is incorrect because it may come across as confrontational and could further provoke the patient's aggression. Choice C is also incorrect as it threatens the patient with consequences, which can escalate the situation. Choice D is not appropriate as it distracts from addressing the current issue of aggression and may not be well-received by the patient in that moment.
Question 3 of 9
Which physical disturbance is commonly assessed in patients experiencing acute grief?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tightness in the chest. This physical disturbance is commonly associated with acute grief due to the emotional pain experienced. It is a manifestation of the intense feelings of sadness and loss that accompany grief. Tightness in the chest can be a result of the stress response triggered by grief, leading to physical symptoms such as chest pain and difficulty breathing. Summary: B: Hypersomnia and C: Increased appetite are more commonly associated with conditions like depression, while D: Cardiovascular problems may be a long-term consequence of chronic stress but are not typically assessed as a primary physical disturbance in acute grief.
Question 4 of 9
The common element seen in every type of bereavement is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it captures the essence of bereavement - the experience of loss. This choice acknowledges that bereavement involves losing something significant, which is a universal aspect of grieving. Other choices are incorrect - A is not always predictable, C is not always acute depression, and D focuses on a specific aspect of grief rather than the core element of loss. Therefore, B is the most comprehensive and inclusive choice.
Question 5 of 9
To plan care for a patient with a psychiatric disorder, the nurse keeps in mind that the primary nursing role related to therapeutic activities is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assisting the patient in accomplishing the activity. This is because the primary nursing role related to therapeutic activities is to support and facilitate the patient in engaging in the activity independently. By assisting the patient, the nurse promotes autonomy and empowerment, which are essential for therapeutic outcomes. Summary: - B: Ensuring that the patient will comply with the rules of the activity is incorrect as it focuses on compliance rather than empowering the patient. - C: Ensuring that the patient can accomplish the activity in a timely manner is incorrect as the focus should be on the patient's ability to engage in the activity, not just the speed. - D: Directing and controlling the activities to minimize patient anxiety and confusion is incorrect as it doesn't promote the patient's independence and may reinforce dependency.
Question 6 of 9
Which patient would the group co-leaders determine is demonstrating Yalom’s therapeutic factor termed universality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because universality in Yalom's therapeutic factors refers to the recognition that one is not alone in their struggles. Patient A demonstrates this by acknowledging that others also face loneliness, fostering a sense of commonality and reducing feelings of isolation. In contrast, patient B's dysfunctional patterns do not relate to universality. Patient C's sense of belonging is related to group cohesion, not universality. Patient D's anger expression is not directly linked to recognizing shared experiences.
Question 7 of 9
Which developmental level would be characterized by a child being able to focus, coordinate, and imagine a series of events? .
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Concrete operational. At this developmental level, children typically exhibit the ability to focus, coordinate, and imagine a series of events. This stage, according to Piaget's theory, usually occurs around ages 7 to 11. Children at this stage can perform logical operations, understand conservation, and think more systematically. A: Preoperational - Children at this stage (ages 2-7) lack the ability to perform logical operations and struggle with understanding conservation and cause-and-effect relationships. C: Formal operational - This stage (typically starting around age 11) involves abstract thinking, hypothetical reasoning, and problem-solving beyond the concrete level. D: Postoperational - This term is not a recognized developmental stage in Piaget's theory.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is working with a group of older adults attending a seminar on the physical and emotional effects of aging. Which patient statements are good predictors of positive well-being and perceived mortality? (Select all that apply.) “Not having to deal with the stress of any major chronic illnesses.”
Correct Answer: A, C
Rationale: The correct answers are A and C. Statement A indicates a positive attitude towards aging, which is a good predictor of positive well-being. Feeling satisfied with growing older can lead to better emotional health and higher perceived mortality. Statement C suggests that retirement provides opportunities for personal fulfillment, which can contribute to positive well-being. Statements B and D do not directly address attitudes towards aging or well-being, making them less reliable predictors.
Question 9 of 9
According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which nursing strategies would assist in meeting self-esteem needs of elderly patients?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice D is correct: 1. Maslow's hierarchy of needs places self-esteem as a fundamental psychological need. 2. Patient hygiene and dress contribute to self-esteem by promoting a sense of dignity and self-worth. 3. Attending to hygiene and dress before spousal visits shows respect for the patient's self-esteem. 4. This strategy directly addresses the self-esteem needs of elderly patients by enhancing their sense of self-worth and respect. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Providing privacy for spouses does not directly address the patient's self-esteem needs. B: Arranging dining with spouses may enhance social needs but not directly address self-esteem. C: Including patients and spouses in educational sessions may promote social interaction but does not directly target self-esteem needs.