ATI RN
Med Surg Cardiovascular Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse administers heparin to a client with deep vein thrombophlebitis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time). PTT measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy by assessing the clotting time. Monitoring PTT helps ensure that the client's blood is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. HCT (Choice B) measures the percentage of red blood cells in the blood and is not directly related to heparin effectiveness. CBC (Choice C) is a complete blood count that includes various parameters, but it does not specifically indicate heparin effectiveness. PT (Choice D) is the Prothrombin Time, which is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for an infant with tetralogy of Fallot. Which drug should the nurse anticipate administering during a tet spell?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meperidine (Demerol). During a tet spell in tetralogy of Fallot, there is a sudden decrease in pulmonary blood flow leading to cyanosis and hypoxia. Meperidine is a vasodilator and helps increase pulmonary blood flow, improving oxygenation. Propranolol (A) is a beta-blocker and can worsen cyanosis by decreasing cardiac output. Morphine (B) can depress the respiratory system and exacerbate hypoxia. Furosemide (D) is a diuretic and does not address the acute decrease in pulmonary blood flow seen in a tet spell.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who had a permanent pacemaker inserted because of a complete heart block. The nurse determines that which of the following client outcomes indicates a successful procedure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a permanent pacemaker is inserted to address heart blocks by providing electrical stimulation to maintain an appropriate heart rate. In this case, the client having paced beats at the rate of 68 per minute indicates that the pacemaker is functioning effectively. Choice A is incorrect as ambulating without dyspnea or chest pain does not specifically indicate the success of the pacemaker procedure. Choice B is incorrect because a normal sinus rhythm would not be expected in a client with a permanent pacemaker. Choice C is incorrect as the heart rate of 80 beats per minute may not be indicative of the pacemaker's effectiveness, as the client may be paced at a different rate. Blood pressure values alone do not indicate the success of the pacemaker insertion.
Question 4 of 5
In coordinating care for a client with venous stasis ulcers, the nurse explains to unlicensed assistive personnel that which of the following is the most important intervention in ulcer healing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevation of the extremities to increase venous return. Elevating the extremities helps reduce edema and improve venous return, promoting healing of venous stasis ulcers. This intervention aids in reducing venous pressure, preventing pooling of blood, and promoting circulation. Surgical debridement (A) may be necessary in some cases but is not the most important intervention for healing. Meticulous cleaning (B) is important to prevent infection but does not directly promote healing. Leg exercises (C) can help improve circulation but may not be as crucial as elevating the extremities in the context of venous stasis ulcers.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is admitted to your telemetry unit with chest pain that has been increasing in intensity and duration. The critical care nurse can identify that this type of angina is called
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Unstable angina. Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain that is increasing in intensity and duration, indicating an imminent heart attack. This type of angina is considered a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Stable angina (choice A) is chest pain that occurs predictably with exertion and resolves with rest. Variant angina (choice B) is caused by coronary artery spasm and is typically relieved by medication. Predictable angina (choice C) is not a recognized term in cardiology. Therefore, the critical care nurse should identify the patient's symptoms as consistent with unstable angina due to the escalating nature of the chest pain.