ATI RN
clinical skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A normal glomerular filtration rate is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (80 to 125 mL/min) because this range represents the normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) for a healthy adult. GFR indicates the rate at which blood is filtered by the kidneys, with 125 mL/min being the average value. Values below 80 mL/min (Choice A) suggest impaired kidney function, while values above 189 mL/min (Choice D) may indicate hyperfiltration or underlying conditions. Choice C (125 to 180 mL/min) falls within the normal range, but the typical average is around 125 mL/min. Thus, choice B is the correct answer as it reflects the standard GFR range for adults.
Question 2 of 9
In calculating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) results for women, the creatinine clearance is usually:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: the same as for men. GFR is calculated based on factors like age, weight, and serum creatinine levels, which are not directly influenced by gender. Therefore, the creatinine clearance for women is the same as for men. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no inherent biological difference between men and women that would cause a difference in creatinine clearance for GFR calculation.
Question 3 of 9
Slow continuous ultrafiltration is also known as isolated ultrafiltration and is used to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Slow continuous ultrafiltration is a method used to remove excess plasma water in cases of volume overload, making choice A the correct answer. This process does not involve adding dialysate (choice C) or combining ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis (choice D). While ultrafiltration does involve the removal of fluids and solutes, it is primarily achieved through ultrafiltration rather than convection (choice B).
Question 4 of 9
An individual with type 2 diabetes who takes glipizide has begun a formal exercise program at a local gym. While exercising on the treadmill, the individual becomes pale, diaphoretic, shaky, and has a headache. The individual feels as though she is going to pass out. What is the individual’s priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eat something with 15 g of simple carbohydrates. In this scenario, the individual is exhibiting signs of hypoglycemia due to the combination of glipizide (which can lower blood sugar) and exercise. The priority action is to raise blood sugar levels quickly to prevent further complications. Consuming simple carbohydrates, like glucose tablets or juice, will rapidly increase blood sugar levels. This is crucial to prevent the individual from passing out or experiencing more serious consequences. Choice A is incorrect because while hydration is important, it is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as going to the first-aid station may waste valuable time when immediate action is needed. Choice D is incorrect as taking another dose of the oral agent can further lower blood sugar levels and worsen the hypoglycemia.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with long-standing type 1 diabetes presents to the emergency department with a loss of consciousness and seizure activity. The patient has a history of renal insufficiency, gastroparesis, and peripheral diabetic neuropathy. Emergency personnel reported a blood glucose of 32 mg/dL on scene. When providing discharge teaching for this patient and family, the nurse instructs on the need to do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate orally for severe episodes of hypoglycemia. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing severe hypoglycemia (blood glucose of 32 mg/dL) leading to loss of consciousness and seizure activity. Administering 15 grams of carbohydrate orally is crucial to rapidly raise the blood glucose levels and address the hypoglycemia. This immediate intervention can help reverse the symptoms and prevent further complications. The incorrect choices: A: Administering glucagon intramuscularly is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the patient cannot take anything by mouth. In this case, oral intake is preferred for faster absorption. C: Discontinuing the insulin pump is not necessary in this situation since the primary concern is treating the acute hypoglycemia. Removing the infusion set can lead to hyperglycemia if not managed properly. D: Increasing home blood glucose monitoring and reporting patterns of hyp
Question 6 of 9
A patient is admitted to the oncology unit with a small-cell lung carcinoma. During the admission, the patient is noted to have a significant decrease in urine output accompanied by shortness of breath, edema, and mental status changes. The nurse is aware that this clinical presentation is consistent with
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). In this scenario, the patient's symptoms of decreased urine output, shortness of breath, edema, and mental status changes are indicative of fluid overload due to SIADH. SIADH causes excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. This results in edema, decreased urine output, and neurological symptoms. A: Adrenal crisis presents with hypotension, shock, and electrolyte abnormalities, not consistent with the patient's symptoms. B: Diabetes insipidus would present with excessive urine output and thirst, opposite of the patient's symptoms. C: Myxedema coma results from severe hypothyroidism and presents with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, not consistent with the patient's symptoms. In summary, the patient's clinical presentation aligns
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department with the following clinical signs: Pulse: 132 beats/min Blood pressure: 88/50 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 32 breaths/min Temperature: 8°F Chest x-ray: Findings consistent with congestive heart failure Cardiac rhythm: Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response These signs are consistent with which disorder?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The clinical signs indicate a hypermetabolic state with tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea, and potential fever, typical of a thyroid storm. The presence of congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation further support this diagnosis due to the hyperthyroid state exacerbating cardiovascular symptoms. Adrenal crisis (A) would present with hypotension and shock, but not with the hypermetabolic state seen here. Myxedema coma (B) would present with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, which are not present in this case. SIADH (C) would typically present with hyponatremia and concentrated urine, which are not seen here.
Question 8 of 9
The most common reasons for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Explanation: A: Acidosis is a common reason to initiate dialysis in acute kidney injury due to impaired acid-base balance. B: Hypokalemia is not a common reason for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury. C: Volume overload may require dialysis but is not as common as acidosis. D: Hyperkalemia is a valid reason for dialysis but not as common as acidosis in acute kidney injury.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. A continuous insulin intravenous infusion is started, and hourly bedside glucose monitoring is ordered. The targeted blood glucose value after the first hour of therapy is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: a decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL compared with admitting values. In diabetic ketoacidosis, there is severe hyperglycemia which needs to be corrected gradually to prevent complications like cerebral edema. A rapid decrease in glucose levels can lead to osmotic shifts and neurological issues. The targeted decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL is considered safe and effective in managing hyperglycemia in these patients. This range ensures a controlled reduction in blood glucose levels without causing harm. Choice A (70 to 120 mg/dL) is too broad and may lead to overly aggressive treatment. Choice B (a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL) is too conservative and may not adequately address the high glucose levels seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D (less than 200 mg/dL) does not provide a specific target range for glucose reduction, which is essential in managing diabetic ketoacidosis effectively.