A nonselective beta receptor agonist causes all of the following effects EXCEPT:

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Cardiovascular System Drugs Classification Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nonselective beta receptor agonist causes all of the following effects EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Increase peripheral arterial resistance) Rationale: Nonselective beta receptor agonists stimulate beta-1 and beta-2 receptors. Activation of beta-1 receptors on the heart increases cardiac output (A). Activation of beta-2 receptors in peripheral arteries causes vasodilation, leading to a decrease in peripheral arterial resistance (C). Mean arterial pressure is determined by cardiac output and peripheral resistance, so decreasing peripheral resistance would not directly lead to a decrease in the mean pressure (D). Therefore, the correct answer is B because nonselective beta receptor agonists do not increase peripheral arterial resistance.

Question 2 of 5

Indicate the barbituric acid derivative which has 4-5 days elimination half-life:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Phenobarbital. Phenobarbital has a longer elimination half-life of 4-5 days due to its extensive hepatic metabolism and slow excretion. Secobarbital (A) has a shorter half-life around 15 hours. Thiopental (B) has a very short half-life of 5-10 hours. Amobarbital (D) has a half-life of around 10-25 hours, making it shorter than phenobarbital. Therefore, based on the pharmacokinetics of these drugs, phenobarbital is the most likely choice with a 4-5 days elimination half-life.

Question 3 of 5

The antiseizure drug, which induces hepatic microsomal enzymes, is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following statements is correct for levodopa?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale for correct answer D: Levodopa therapy for Parkinson's disease has well-documented characteristics. A: Tolerance can develop to both beneficial effects (reduced over time) and adverse effects (increased over time). B: Levodopa is most effective in the initial years of treatment due to progressive loss of response. C: After 5 years, patients may experience dose-related dyskinesias, inadequate response, or toxicity due to disease progression and medication adjustments. Therefore, all statements are accurate and reflect the complexities of long-term levodopa therapy in Parkinson's disease.

Question 5 of 5

Indicate the pure opioid antagonist which has a half-life of 10 hours:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Naltrexone. Naltrexone is a pure opioid antagonist with a half-life of 10 hours, making it the most appropriate choice. Naloxone (A) is a short-acting opioid antagonist used for emergency overdose situations. Tramadol (C) is a weak opioid agonist with additional effects on serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake. Pentazocine (D) is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist. Therefore, only Naltrexone fits the criteria of a pure opioid antagonist with a 10-hour half-life.

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